Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Oct 2013, at 20:00, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/4/2013 7:39 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Physical time, on the contrary is most plausibly a quantum notion,  
and should normally emerge (assuming comp) from the interference of  
all computations + the stable first person (plural) points of view.


I don't think physical time is even a single concept.  There is t  
that goes in the equations, there is a general relativistic time- 
like killing vector, there is the direction of increase of local  
entropy, there is expansion of the universe,...  A lot of  
interesting questions in physics arise from studying how these  
relate to one another.


I agree. Here by physical time I was thinking of the t in the time  
dependent Schroedinger equation. It might be, already in physics, a  
dispensable parameter (like in DeWitt-Wheeler equation H = 0).
All notions of time must be recovered from 0, 1, 2, 3, ... + addition  
+ multiplication (+ the points of view, but they are derived).


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: A challenge for Craig

2013-10-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Oct 2013, at 20:06, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/4/2013 7:40 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

When a consciousness is not manifested, what is it's content?


Good question. Difficult. Sometimes ago, I would have said that  
consciousness exists only in manifested form.


That's what I would say.


I have to confess that salvia has put a doubt on this. I cannot reject  
this as an hallucination, because the experience does not depend on  
the fact that it is an hallucination.
A bit like a blind person cannot say that he saw something but that is  
was an hallucination.


I have no certainty at all in those matter.





But I am much less sure about that, and such consciousness state   
might be something like heavenly bliss or hellish terror, depending  
on the path where you would lost the ability of manifesting yourself.


Recognizing that consciousness means different things: perception,  
self-modeling, awareness of self-modeling, self-evaluation,... I  
think we can at least see what it is like to not have some of these  
forms of consciousness because we generally have at most one at a  
given time - and sometimes we don't have any of them.


Here the salvia experience is tremendously interesting, as we loose  
many things, like memory, sense of self, body, notions of time and  
space, etc. yet we remain conscious, with the weird feeling that we  
are conscious for the first time, and the last time, and that we  
remember something that we know better than everything we might have  
believed to know.
It is a quite paradoxical state of mind, and coming back from it, it  
gives a sense that consciousness is fundamentally something statical,  
making time illusory. I thought that consciousness needed that time  
illusion, but now I am less sure about that.


Bruno




http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Oct 2013, at 01:16, Russell Standish wrote:


On Fri, Oct 04, 2013 at 04:51:02PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


Read AUDA, where you can find the mathematical definition for each
pronouns, based on Kleene's recursion theorem (using the Dx = xx
trick, which I promised to do in term of numbers, phi_i, W_i, etc.
but 99,999% will find the use of them in UDA enough clear for the
reasoning. Yet, I have made AUDA as I was told some scientists were
allergic to thought experiments, and indeed studied only AUDA (and
got no problem with it).



Hi Bruno,

You meade this comment before, and I just passed over it, because it
didn't seem that relevant to the thread. I am familiar with your AUDA
from your Lille thesis, of course, but don't recall anywhere where you
discuss formalisation of pronouns.

Perhaps you do this in another treatment of the AUDA I haven't read?  
Or perhaps

you have some slightly different idea in you mind that I'm missing?
Just wondering...


I thought I have explained this very often, but perhaps I have been  
unclear, or took some understanding of Gödel 1931 for granted?


Bp (intended for its arithmetical interpretation, thus Gödel's  
beweisbar) is the third person I; like in I have two legs, or like  
in front of my code or body (scanned by the doctor). I refer often to  
it by 3-I. This is standard self-reference.


Bp  p, is the knower, which plays the role of the first person in  
AUDA. It is a solipsistic person unable to provide any definition or  
name for who he is. It is the Plotinus universal soul, or the inner  
God of the East. It is the non duplicable being which is unable to  
feel the split in duplication experience. From his own perspective  
he is not duplicable, not nameable, and not a machine (!).


The other hypostases are variant of those above. Normally Bp  Dt  
should give a first person plural, and is as much nameable, and  
definable in arithmetic than the 3-I. It is really the 3-I + a reality  
(Dt).


The sensible person, in a reality is the knower + reality (Bp  p  Dt).

OK?

To sum up:
Bp = 3-I,
Bp  p = 1-I.
The Dt can be added, and just transform the provability into  
probability (which needs ([]p   -  p), in formal treatment).


Bruno







Cheers
--


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-05 Thread Russell Standish
On Sat, Oct 05, 2013 at 09:40:18AM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 On 05 Oct 2013, at 01:16, Russell Standish wrote:
 
 On Fri, Oct 04, 2013 at 04:51:02PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 Read AUDA, where you can find the mathematical definition for each
 pronouns, based on Kleene's recursion theorem (using the Dx = xx
 trick, which I promised to do in term of numbers, phi_i, W_i, etc.
 but 99,999% will find the use of them in UDA enough clear for the
 reasoning. Yet, I have made AUDA as I was told some scientists were
 allergic to thought experiments, and indeed studied only AUDA (and
 got no problem with it).
 
 
 Hi Bruno,
 
 You meade this comment before, and I just passed over it, because it
 didn't seem that relevant to the thread. I am familiar with your AUDA
 from your Lille thesis, of course, but don't recall anywhere where you
 discuss formalisation of pronouns.
 
 Perhaps you do this in another treatment of the AUDA I haven't
 read? Or perhaps
 you have some slightly different idea in you mind that I'm missing?
 Just wondering...
 
 I thought I have explained this very often, but perhaps I have been
 unclear, or took some understanding of Gödel 1931 for granted?
 
 Bp (intended for its arithmetical interpretation, thus Gödel's
 beweisbar) is the third person I; like in I have two legs, or like
 in front of my code or body (scanned by the doctor). I refer often
 to it by 3-I. This is standard self-reference.
 
 Bp  p, is the knower, which plays the role of the first person in
 AUDA. It is a solipsistic person unable to provide any definition or
 name for who he is. It is the Plotinus universal soul, or the inner
 God of the East. It is the non duplicable being which is unable to
 feel the split in duplication experience. From his own perspective
 he is not duplicable, not nameable, and not a machine (!).
 
 The other hypostases are variant of those above. Normally Bp  Dt
 should give a first person plural, and is as much nameable, and
 definable in arithmetic than the 3-I. It is really the 3-I + a
 reality (Dt).
 
 The sensible person, in a reality is the knower + reality (Bp  p  Dt).
 
 OK?
 
 To sum up:
 Bp = 3-I,
 Bp  p = 1-I.
 The Dt can be added, and just transform the provability into
 probability (which needs ([]p   -  p), in formal treatment).
 
 Bruno
 

I get that Bp is the statement that I can prove p, and that Bp  p is
the statement that I know p (assuming Theatetus, of course), but in
both cases, I would say the pronoun I refers to the same
entity. English, and AFAIK French, do not make a distinction between
3-I and 1-I, so this is some new terminology that you have introduced,
with unclear connection to real pronouns. Why do you say they are pronouns?

Cheers
-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: The probability problem in Everettian quantum mechanics

2013-10-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Oct 2013, at 23:30, John Mikes wrote:


Richard:
I grew into denying probability in cases where not - ALL -  
circumstances are known.


I agree with this. That is why there are many other attempt to study  
ignorance and beliefs (like believability theories, which is like  
probability, except they can sum and go above 1).
Now I am not sure Dizadji-Bahmani is successful on his critics on  
branching indifference, which of ourse can be seen as part of the  
first person indeterminacy in the (more general) comp or arithmetical  
duplication situations.


Bruno



Since we know only part of the infinite complexity of the WORLD, we  
buy in for a mistake if fixing anything like 'probability'.
The same goes for statistical: push the borderlines abit further  
away and the COUNT of the studied item (= statistical value) will  
change. Also the above argument for probability is valid for results  
as 'statistical' values.

JM


On Fri, Oct 4, 2013 at 12:27 PM, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com  
wrote:
Foad Dizadji-Bahmani, 2013. The probability problem in Everettian  
quantum mechanics persists. British Jour. Philosophy of Science   IN  
PRESS.


ABSTRACT. Everettian quantum mechanics (EQM) results in ‘multiple,  
emergent, branching quasi-classical realities’ (Wallace [2012]).  
The possible outcomes of measurement as per ‘orthodox’ quantum  
mechanics are, in EQM, all instantiated. Given this metaphysics,  
Everettians face the ‘probability problem’—how to make sense of  
probabilities, and recover the Born Rule. To solve the probability  
problem, Wallace, following Deutsch ([1999]), has derived a quantum  
representation theorem. I argue that Wallace’s solution to the  
probability problem is unsuccessful, as follows. First, I examine  
one of the axioms of rationality used to derive the theorem,  
Branching Indifference (BI). I argue that Wallace is not successful  
in showing that BI is rational. While I think it is correct to put  
the burden of proof on Wallace to motivate BI as an axiom of  
rationality, it does not follow from his failing to do so that BI is  
not rational. Thus, second, I show that there is an alternative  
strategy for setting one’s credences in the face of branching which  
is rational, and which violates BI. This is Branch Counting (BC).  
Wallace is aware of BC, and has proffered various arguments against  
it. However, third, I argue that Wallace’s arguments against BC are  
unpersuasive. I conclude that the probability problem in EQM persists.


http://www.foaddb.com/FDBCV.pdf
Publications (a Ph.D. in Philosophy, London School of Economics, May  
2012)
‘The Probability Problem in Everettian Quantum Mechanics  
Persists’, British Journal for Philosophy of Science, forthcoming
‘The Aharanov Approach to Equilibrium’, Philosophy of Science,  
2011 78(5): 976-988
‘Who is Afraid of Nagelian Reduction?’, Erkenntnis, 2010 73:  
393-412, (with R. Frigg and S. Hartmann)
‘Confirmation and Reduction: A Bayesian Account’, Synthese, 2011  
179(2): 321-338, (with R. Frigg and S. Hartmann)


His paper may be an interesting read once it comes out. Also  
available in:
‘Why I am not an Everettian’, in D. Dieks and V. Karakostas  
(eds): Recent Progress in Philosophy of Science: Perspectives and  
Foundational Problems, 2013, (The Third European Philosophy of  
Science Association Proceedings), Dordrecht: Springer


I think this list needs another discussion of the possible MWI  
probability problem although it has been covered here and elsewhere  
by members of this list. Previous discussions have not been  
personally convincing.


Richard

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Re: Aaronson's paper

2013-10-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Oct 2013, at 03:07, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/4/2013 2:14 PM, LizR wrote:

On 5 October 2013 06:53, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

He comes to this because he's *defined* Knightian uncertainty as  
radical unpredictability without randomness.


I don't see why it doesn't entail randomness, especially if it  
comes from quantum fluctuations during the big bang.


I found that a little puzzling too.  But I happen to be reading  
Scott's book Quantum Computing Since Democritus too; and in it he  
gives more of an explanation.  He notes that there are some things  
which are undetermined but which it doesn't seem possible to assign  
a probability distribution to, more precisely there are quite  
different probability distributions that seem equally applicable.   
He discusses a few examples.  The Doomsday argument is one that is  
probably known to everyone on this list.


I agree with this. In the doomsday argument the use of Bayes formula  
is valid, but the premisse ask for an ASSA (absolute self-sampling  
assumption, in Bostrom terms).






He notes that one could estimate a probability using a self-sampling  
assumption or a self-indicial assumption and they produce different  
answers.  His general conclusion is that there are undetermined  
things that are not random.


OK.




I think he would put Bruno's FPI in that class.


FPI needs only the RSSA, and I don't think it falls in the class.  
Indeed, the distribution is given by the usual binomial or normal,  
coupled or not with the UD.






And apparently that's what he thinks initial conditions of the  
universe could be.


Of course that makes the whole point very weak. he has to assumled  
some primitive physical reality, with a strange and incomprehensible  
cause or start.






Incidentally, I highly recommend the book.


But even if it doesn't, it still doesn't seem to me to lead to  
free will worth having.


I agree with Dennett there: Determinism can provide all the freedom  
worth having.


I agree with this. Even interesting and relevant notion of free-will,  
for which indeterminacy of any kind is useless.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Oct 2013, at 10:05, Russell Standish wrote:


On Sat, Oct 05, 2013 at 09:40:18AM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 05 Oct 2013, at 01:16, Russell Standish wrote:


On Fri, Oct 04, 2013 at 04:51:02PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


Read AUDA, where you can find the mathematical definition for each
pronouns, based on Kleene's recursion theorem (using the Dx = xx
trick, which I promised to do in term of numbers, phi_i, W_i, etc.
but 99,999% will find the use of them in UDA enough clear for the
reasoning. Yet, I have made AUDA as I was told some scientists were
allergic to thought experiments, and indeed studied only AUDA (and
got no problem with it).



Hi Bruno,

You meade this comment before, and I just passed over it, because it
didn't seem that relevant to the thread. I am familiar with your  
AUDA
from your Lille thesis, of course, but don't recall anywhere where  
you

discuss formalisation of pronouns.

Perhaps you do this in another treatment of the AUDA I haven't
read? Or perhaps
you have some slightly different idea in you mind that I'm missing?
Just wondering...


I thought I have explained this very often, but perhaps I have been
unclear, or took some understanding of Gödel 1931 for granted?

Bp (intended for its arithmetical interpretation, thus Gödel's
beweisbar) is the third person I; like in I have two legs, or like
in front of my code or body (scanned by the doctor). I refer often
to it by 3-I. This is standard self-reference.

Bp  p, is the knower, which plays the role of the first person in
AUDA. It is a solipsistic person unable to provide any definition or
name for who he is. It is the Plotinus universal soul, or the inner
God of the East. It is the non duplicable being which is unable to
feel the split in duplication experience. From his own perspective
he is not duplicable, not nameable, and not a machine (!).

The other hypostases are variant of those above. Normally Bp  Dt
should give a first person plural, and is as much nameable, and
definable in arithmetic than the 3-I. It is really the 3-I + a
reality (Dt).

The sensible person, in a reality is the knower + reality (Bp  p   
Dt).


OK?

To sum up:
Bp = 3-I,
Bp  p = 1-I.
The Dt can be added, and just transform the provability into
probability (which needs ([]p   -  p), in formal treatment).

Bruno



I get that Bp is the statement that I can prove p, and that Bp  p is
the statement that I know p (assuming Theatetus, of course), but in
both cases, I would say the pronoun I refers to the same
entity.


G* proves that they are the same, but G does not. It is (in God's eye)  
the same entity, but the machine is unable to know, or to prove that,  
and that explains the difference of the perspective. 3-I has a name/ 
description, but the 1-I has no name.






English, and AFAIK French, do not make a distinction between
3-I and 1-I, so this is some new terminology that you have introduced,
with unclear connection to real pronouns. Why do you say they are  
pronouns?


Because 1-I and 3-I are variant of the pronoun I. Natural language  
use the same word, because we tend to confuse them. The duplication  
experiences are the simplest tool for distinguishing them. The  
Theatetus' definition, when applied to Gödel's beweisbar also  
distinguish them, rather miraculously.
Plotinus and most serious people approaching the mind body problem saw  
the difference, but the 1-I is typically eliminated by the  
Aristotelian theologian (like the atheists, the fundamentalists, etc.).
It is almost the difference between the body and the soul. The first  
does admit third person descriptions, the second has none (like Truth).


Bruno







Cheers
--


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Reformulation of the mind-body problem

2013-10-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


In case you are intersted, here is a link to my last publication:

Article title: The computationalist reformulation of the mind-body  
problem

Reference: JPBM863
Journal title: Progress in Biophysics and Molecular Biology
Corresponding author: Dr. Bruno Marchal
First author: Dr. Bruno Marchal
Final version published online: 5-OCT-2013
Full bibliographic details: Progress in Biophysics and Molecular  
Biology 113 (2013), pp. 127-140

DOI information: 10.1016/j.pbiomolbio.2013.03.014

Available online at:

http://authors.elsevier.com/sd/article/S007961071300028X
Please note that access to the full text of this article will depend  
on your personal or institutional entitlements.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: A challenge for Craig

2013-10-05 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 5 October 2013 15:25, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 The question is whether swapping out part of the system for a
 functional equivalent will change the qualia the system experiences
 without changing the behaviour. I don't think this is possible, for if
 the qualia change the subject would (at least) notice


 That's the point I find questionable.  Why couldn't some qualia change in
 minor ways and the system *not* notice because the system doesn't have any
 absolute memory to which it can compare qualia. Have you ever gone back to a
 house you lived in as a small child? Looks a lot smaller doesn't it.

 Brent

If a normal brain does not notice changes or falsely notices changes
then a brain with functionally identical implants will also fail to
notice or falsely notice these changes.

 and say that the
 qualia have changed, which constitutes a change in behaviour.
 Therefore, the qualia and the behaviour are somehow inextricably
 linked. The alternative, that the qualia are substrate dependent,
 can't work.



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Re: The confluence of cosmology and biology

2013-10-05 Thread spudboy100

You may be absolutely correct, Professor, Standish, and likely are. But you 
know, what I can say in response is that the programmer just is, which, of 
course, bumps, what we know of causality. Or, more, precisely, a programmer 
designs a program that creates a single hubble volume, or many, many. And, yes, 
I am just moving the problem backwards, endlessly. I have of late become 
curious about Boltzmann Brains resolving-confusing this issue of CA emerging 
accidentally, versus a programmer. BB's may do this, as I have read that 
Boltzmann and some contemporary physicists and mathematicians, consider this 
BB(s) to arise out of the thermal disequalibrium, between the false vacuum, and 
absolute vacuum in which the Hubble Volume began with. Allegedly, these BB's or 
perhaps, just one BB, is said to have emerged from nothing (vacuum--false 
vacuum) with false memories and a personality. 

This is an absolutely, insane, notion, but the problem is-I sort of like it. 
Maybe the programmer came from nothing, or get big CA? Or the Big CA percolated 
up and created the big programer, or program, even? It is definitely, insane, 
but also maybe insanely, great? To quote US skeptic, and Atheist, Michael 
Shermer, Any sufficiently, advanced, ET is indistinguishable from God.  
Shermer was rifting on Arthur C. Clarke's famous, quote, regarding technology, 
as you already know. But rather then being repelled by the idea, I, personally, 
 feel good about it. I suppose there's no accounting for taste. or whom one may 
encounter on a mailing list. 

I am semi-serious in this proposal, that if this thinking turns out to at least 
be conceivable, theoretically, then perhaps international SETI searches could 
also include BB's as well as carbon-water beings such as ourselves? It might be 
interesting to interview this big BB. I wouldn't even mind genuflecting, 
because, hey, that's what us, primates, do when encountering a 'superior 
being.' 

Thanks for viewing this post (if you do?)

Mitch



-Original Message-
From: Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Fri, Oct 4, 2013 8:56 pm
Subject: Re: The confluence of cosmology and biology


On Fri, Oct 04, 2013 at 11:54:34AM -0400, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:
 
 Very well, Professor Standish, given that, could the Hubble Volume
tself, then be considered as one CA? A CA that is 13.7 light years
cross, and thus, that old? 
That sounds like what Wolfram proposes.
Is this CA, or all CA's something that emerges from thermo and fluid
ynamics, or does it require (sigh!) a programmer, in the Jurgen
chmidhuber, sense of the word?  
I don't see why a programmer is required. Presumably, if is some sort
f CA, it just is.
Apologies for my obtuseness, but hey, this what all good primates do, connect 
ots, make assumptions.
 
 Thanks, 
 
 Mitch
 
 
 -Original Message-
 From: Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Thu, Oct 3, 2013 8:13 pm
 Subject: Re: The confluence of cosmology and biology
 
 
 There are plenty of examples, but it will take too long to extract the
 literature. For example, the Navier-Stokes equations describing fluid
 flow can be simulated via an appropriate hex tiling (close packed
 spheres) CA (or generalised CA). I've seen people give examples of CAs
 simulating the reaction-diffusion equations that Turing used for his
 famous morphogenesis study.
 
 Cheers
 
 On Thu, Oct 03, 2013 at 05:38:45PM -0400, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:
  
  Does anyone know any  phenomena in nature or science that duplicates
  the behavior of Cellular Automata?  Does cell biology do the tasks
  of CA, orbis this merely, a mathematical abstraction? Does anything
  in physics come to mind, when refering to CA?
  
  
  -Original Message-
  From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
  To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
  Sent: Wed, Oct 2, 2013 10:18 am
  Subject: Re: The confluence of cosmology and biology
  
  
  On 02 Oct 2013, at 03:56, Russell Standish wrote:
  
  On Tue, Oct 01, 2013 at 02:54:51PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
  
  On 01 Oct 2013, at 01:30, Russell Standish wrote:
  
  The real universe is likely to be 11 dimensional, nonlocal with
  around
  10^{122} states, or 2^{10^{122}} possible universes, if indeed it
  is a
  CA at all. Needles in haystacks is a walk in the park by comparison.
  
  CA are local. The universe cannot be a CA if comp is correct, and
  the empirical violation of Bell's inequality confirms this comp
  feature.
  
  Bruno
  
  
  There is no particular requirement for CAs to be local, although local
  CAs are by far easier to study than nonlocal ones, so in practice they
  usually are (cue obligatory lamp post analogy).
  
  We can easily conceive quantum CA.
  But those are not what is named simply CA (which locality is quite
  typical).
  You will not find quantum CA in Wolfram (well, in my edition).
  
  
  
 

Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-05 Thread John Clark
On Fri, Oct 4, 2013 at 10:39 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 the coin throw was random so you ended up in Moscow rather than
 Washington for no reason at all, but that's OK because there is no law of
 logic that demands every event have a cause.


  The point is that in this case the randomness is know to be due to the
 lack of precision in the data


Exactly, lack of precision in the data. In the Many Worlds interpretation,
and in all the duplicating chamber thought experiments I have see on this
list, probability is not a property of the thing itself but just a measure
of a lack of information.


  Not something like the self-duplication.


What randomness is there in that?


  we know in advance that each copies can only see one city,


Yes.


  and not both


Yes, Bruno Marchal the Washington Man will not see Moscow, and Bruno
Marchal the Moscow Man will not see Washington, and Bruno Marchal the
Helsinki Man will not see Moscow or Washington; and of course Bruno Marchal
will turn into things (PLURAL because Bruno Marchal has been duplicated)
that see all 3 cities.


  and so the immediate result of the self-localization cannot be predicted
 by the guy in Helsinki.


Without using personal pronouns please tell John K Clark the precise
question to ask the guy in Helsinki that has a indeterminate answer, and
just as important please make clear exactly who Bruno Marchal is asking the
question to.


  You are playing with words


Words are the only way we have to communicate and I am not playing and this
is not a game. I have no doubt that if duplicating chambers were in common
use in Shakespeare's day by now the English language would be very
different, particularly in regard to personal pronouns; but that didn't
happen so we are left with a very imperfect instrument to discuss these
matters. Thus when talking philosophically about duplicating chambers
personal pronouns must be used sparingly and with great care even if that
results in inelegant prose.


  I have no clue, and I think that nobody has any clue about what you fail
 to understand.


I no longer think there is anything there to understand.

 You oscillate between not new and trivial, and wrong,

Yes, because your statements oscillate between not new, trivial, hopelessly
vague, and just wrong. I said a long time ago that no philosopher in the
last 200 years has said something that was clear, deep, non-obvious, and
true that a scientist or mathematician hadn't said long before, and you are
continuing in that grand tradition.

  John K Clark

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Re: The confluence of cosmology and biology (errata)

2013-10-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Oct 2013, at 21:10, Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 04 Oct 2013, at 17:48, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:


Oh that's a typo, and I have never read the Many Forking Paths.


It is a very good one, quoted by Everett, if I remember well.
I think Liz thought on Tlon Uqbar Orbid Tertius. The first novel in  
Fiction, which contains the Forking Path novel.

I like most novels in Fiction. Borgess is great.


I meant of course Tlon Uqbar Orbis Tertius. Orbid is a typo. Orbis  
was the term which started this litlle sub-thread.


Sorry.

Bruno

PS There might be ¨ on the o of Tlon (Tlön). Not entirely sure of  
the spelling. All that from personal memory, directly accessible from  
my organic memories, as the book itself seems to be in some box zmong  
boxes, I hope!






Bruno



It was funny how philosophers like Borges (a novelist), David  
Lewis, and Hugh Everett the 3rd got to the same conclusion. All  
about the same time.

-Original Message-
From: LizR lizj...@gmail.com
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Thu, Oct 3, 2013 5:54 pm
Subject: Re: The confluence of cosmology and biology




On 4 October 2013 10:38, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

Does anyone know any  phenomena in nature or science that  
duplicates the behavior of Cellular Automata?  Does cell biology do  
the tasks of CA, orbis this merely, a mathematical abstraction?  
Does anything in physics come to mind, when refering to CA?


I think some chemical reactions are similar?

(By the way I love the orbis - immediately made me think of  
Borges - but I'm guessing it was just a typo :)


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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-05 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Sat, Oct 5, 2013 at 5:05 PM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Fri, Oct 4, 2013 at 10:39 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  the coin throw was random so you ended up in Moscow rather than
 Washington for no reason at all, but that's OK because there is no law of
 logic that demands every event have a cause.


  The point is that in this case the randomness is know to be due to the
 lack of precision in the data


 Exactly, lack of precision in the data. In the Many Worlds interpretation,
 and in all the duplicating chamber thought experiments I have see on this
 list, probability is not a property of the thing itself but just a measure
 of a lack of information.


Point? Flaw expressed as a complete idea and not as some partial attack on
terms from the hedges?




  Not something like the self-duplication.


 What randomness is there in that?


Point? Flaw expressed as a complete idea and not as some partial attack on
terms from the hedges?





  we know in advance that each copies can only see one city,


 Yes.


  and not both


 Yes, Bruno Marchal the Washington Man will not see Moscow, and Bruno
 Marchal the Moscow Man will not see Washington, and Bruno Marchal the
 Helsinki Man will not see Moscow or Washington; and of course Bruno Marchal
 will turn into things (PLURAL because Bruno Marchal has been duplicated)
 that see all 3 cities.


  and so the immediate result of the self-localization cannot be
 predicted by the guy in Helsinki.


 Without using personal pronouns please tell John K Clark the precise
 question to ask the guy in Helsinki that has a indeterminate answer, and
 just as important please make clear exactly who Bruno Marchal is asking the
 question to.



You are playing, because the guy in Helsinki is a third person
description. The 3rd person pronoun is embedded in your question and you
are asking for it to be removed while providing an answer concerning it.
Whatever, John... I don't believe that you're seriously asking something
this semantically unsound.

 You are playing with words


 Words are the only way we have to communicate and I am not playing and
 this is not a game.


Your last question I responded to, is sufficient to let readers decide on
that. It's a fine example of how you play and/or your alien conception of
pronouns.


 I have no doubt that if duplicating chambers were in common use in
 Shakespeare's day by now the English language would be very different,
 particularly in regard to personal pronouns; but that didn't happen so we
 are left with a very imperfect instrument to discuss these matters.


Why literally and metaphorically baroque hypothetical from the guy that
hates philosophy?

Not teleporting in Shakespeare's time is responsible for use of pronouns
today?! Sorry, but this is worse than bad philosophy.

And no philosophers to blame. John Clark produced that statement and is the
philosopher he set out to shoot down in this thread.


 Thus when talking philosophically about duplicating chambers personal
 pronouns must be used sparingly and with great care even if that results in
 inelegant prose.


Not so fast... you can also use informal language use ambiguity of
interplay between pronouns, entities, and pov to obfuscate your own
bogosity.

Bruno's use corresponds to accepted standards in linguistics and, from what
I understand, in mathematical logic as well. What does your hyper-complex
use of pronouns correspond to?




  I have no clue, and I think that nobody has any clue about what you
 fail to understand.


 I no longer think there is anything there to understand.


You never wanted to, despite your intelligence, so cut the pretense.




  You oscillate between not new and trivial, and wrong,

 Yes, because your statements oscillate between not new, trivial,
 hopelessly vague, and just wrong. I said a long time ago that no
 philosopher in the last 200 years has said something that was clear, deep,
 non-obvious, and true that a scientist or mathematician hadn't said long
 before, and you are continuing in that grand tradition.


Again, you're that philosopher in this discussion, John. Not clear, deep,
non-obvious, and true. So that is consistent: the philosopher that sheds
light on nothing but obvious wrongs or redundant trivialities and
obfuscations (your 3rd person description of philosophers starting this
discussion) is first person John Clark making statements here.

Again you mix up the 1p and 3p pronouns. Whether deliberate or not, is not
the question. You claimed to have found a flaw; but if you keep mixing up
these two to your heart's content, and use that as a vector for attacking
from hedges with no theory or backup for your use of pronouns, then it is
clear why you think you have found a flaw. PGC



   John K Clark




















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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Oct 2013, at 17:05, John Clark wrote:

On Fri, Oct 4, 2013 at 10:39 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


 the coin throw was random so you ended up in Moscow rather than  
Washington for no reason at all, but that's OK because there is no  
law of logic that demands every event have a cause.


 The point is that in this case the randomness is know to be due to  
the lack of precision in the data


Exactly, lack of precision in the data. In the Many Worlds  
interpretation, and in all the duplicating chamber thought  
experiments I have see on this list, probability is not a property  
of the thing itself but just a measure of a lack of information.


 Not something like the self-duplication.

What randomness is there in that?



The randomness is well described in the diaries of those doing the  
experience.







 we know in advance that each copies can only see one city,

Yes.

 and not both

Yes, Bruno Marchal the Washington Man will not see Moscow, and Bruno  
Marchal the Moscow Man will not see Washington, and Bruno Marchal  
the Helsinki Man will not see Moscow or Washington; and of course  
Bruno Marchal will turn into things (PLURAL because Bruno Marchal  
has been duplicated) that see all 3 cities.


But you have agreed that all bruno marchal are the original one (a  
case where Leibniz identity rule fails, like in modal logics), so why  
don't you listen to him, and indeed all of him.


If in Helsinki he predicted {W  M}, the bruno marchal in W will see  
that his prediction failed, as he must admit that he is not seeing M.


If in Helsinki he predicted W, then the bruno marchal in M will see  
that the prediction failed. And, with comp, we accept that both the  
people in W and in M are equal in bruno marchalness.


If in Helsinki he predicted (W or M), and that means he write W or M  
in his diary (which will be destroyed and recreated in two copies,  
then both bruno marchal will look at the diary, which assert W v  
M, and both will see that indeed one disjunct have been realized, and  
so both prediction win.


In UDA, first and third person are entirely described in term of  
annihilation and reconstitution.
The notion of first person plural is defined similarly in term of  
duplication of entire population, and this can already provide a  
definition of entanglement in classical computer science term (but  
that is premature here).






 and so the immediate result of the self-localization cannot be  
predicted by the guy in Helsinki.


Without using personal pronouns please tell John K Clark the precise  
question to ask the guy in Helsinki that has a indeterminate  
answer, and just as important please make clear exactly who Bruno  
Marchal is asking the question to.


The question is what do you expect to live or feel, as a comp  
believer when experiencing the step 3 protocol. More precisely, it  
concerns the seeing of the cities involved: do you expect W, M, both,  
etc.


The question is used in the traditional sense of you, before the  
duplication. I just ask you the question, about what experience you  
can expect (as you will not die, and not feel to be in both cities at  
once).


The guy reason in comp, and knows already many things: that he will  
survive (you have agreed on that), that he will not feel the split,  
that he will see only city among W and M, that the experience will be  
smooth, etc.


He knows that from his first person perspective he will feel nothing,  
and find itself in one city, and that he could not have been sure  
about which one.


In the 2^big n movie experience, a simple calculus shows that white  
noise is the most reasonable answer.






 You are playing with words

Words are the only way we have to communicate and I am not playing  
and this is not a game. I have no doubt that if duplicating chambers  
were in common use in Shakespeare's day by now the English language  
would be very different, particularly in regard to personal  
pronouns; but that didn't happen so we are left with a very  
imperfect instrument to discuss these matters.
Thus when talking philosophically about duplicating chambers  
personal pronouns must be used sparingly and with great care even if  
that results in inelegant prose.


That is why I make it clear, and give precise definition, and notably  
use the duplication experience to distinguish clearly the 1-I from the  
3-I, and all this in a traditional third person discourse. The first  
person discourse being here mainly the history of the experiences  
described in the diaries.


I do the same later, in arithmetic, by showing that the oldest  
definition of knowledge, when applied in arithmetic, introduce a  
similar distinction between third and first person discourse.


You have usually mocked away all those precisions.







 I have no clue, and I think that nobody has any clue about what  
you fail to understand.


I no longer think there is anything there to understand.
 You oscillate 

Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-05 Thread John Clark
On Fri, Oct 4, 2013 at 10:51 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Personal pronouns with no referent


  You never made any assertion explicit. Quote a passage of me with a
 personal pronoun without referent.


The following is far far from complete, this just gives a taste of the
incoherent use of personal pronouns:

Mon, Nov 26, 2012 at 11:33 AM, Bruno Marchal said:

the question is about which differentiation [you] will live and The
Helsinki guy can not be sure if [he] will experience seeing W or M  and
[he] cannot predict [his] future 1view

On Fri, Nov 9, 2012 at 11:56 AM, Bruno Marchal said:

To evaluate [your] chance, in helsinki, to later feel to be the W or the M
man after the duplication is done [blah blah]   and  the question was:
where will [you] feel   and   [You] can do the thought experiment in a
setting where in Helsinki [you] take some drug so that [you] become
amnesic, and don't know more who [you] are

On Fri, Nov 16, 2012 at 11:24 AM, Bruno Marchal said:

from the 1p, after pushing the button and opening the box, [you] *feel*
[blah blah]  and  it is simple to understand that [you]  [blah blah]

Sat, Sep 28, 2013 at 3:16 AM, Bruno Marchal said:

in all cases [we] have one future, in the first person pov

And just last Monday Bruno Marchal said:

I want only evaluate [my] chance to see M, or W, when in helsinki I am
told that I will be duplicated  and  by comp I know [I] will see only one
city.

  this explains the indeterminacy. If [you] don't die, and know in advance
 that [you] can logically feel only one city,  but that you are
 reconstituted in both city, you know that any program or god predicting
 where you will feel (you the guy still in Helsinki)


Bruno Marchal the guy in Helsinki will never experience and has never
experienced any city except Helsinki because otherwise the guy in Helsinki
would not be the guy in Helsinki.

 will be refuted by necessarily one of the copies, and that's enough to
 refute it.


Bruno Marchal the guy in Washington and Bruno Marchal the guy in Moscow
don't know anything about what happened to Bruno Marchal the guy in
Helsinki after the duplication was made, but whatever happened it is
obvious that as some point Bruno Marchal has experienced Helsinki and
Washington and Moscow.

  John K Clark

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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-05 Thread John Clark
On Sat, Oct 5, 2013 at 12:28 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 you have agreed that all bruno marchal are the original one (a case
 where Leibniz identity rule fails,


If you're talking about Leibniz Identity of indiscernibles it most
certainly has NOT failed. If the original and the copy are identical then
exchanging there position will not make a observable difference to a
outside observer nor to the original nor to the copy. So Leibniz would
conclude that if objectively it makes no difference and subjectively it
makes no difference then exchanging the position of the original and the
copy just plain makes no difference.

 If in Helsinki [he] predicted {W  M} [blah blah]


SEE!  Bruno Marchal is incapable of expressing ideas without pronouns with
no referent. Was he making a prediction about
the future of Bruno Marchal or about the future of Bruno Marchal the
Helsinki Man? If it's about Bruno Marchal then the correct prediction would
be Helsinki Moscow and Washington, if it's about Bruno Marchal the Helsinki
Man the correct prediction can only be Helsinki. But who cares about
predictions?


  the bruno marchal in W will see that his prediction failed, as [he]
 must admit that [he] is not seeing M.


But he must admit he is NOT the only Bruno Marchal because he HAS
BEEN DUPLICATED!  Bruno Marchal admits that he has been duplicated but
still insists on referring to he as if there were still only one, and
that's what makes the whole thing incoherent. And what on earth does a
prediction, correct or incorrect, have to do with a feeling of self
anyway?

   and so the immediate result of the self-localization cannot be
 predicted by the guy in Helsinki.


  Without using personal pronouns please tell John K Clark the precise
 question to ask the guy in Helsinki that has a indeterminate answer, and
 just as important please make clear exactly who Bruno Marchal is asking the
 question to.


  The question is what do [you] expect to live or feel, as a comp
 believer


SEE!  Bruno Marchal just can't stop using those damn pronouns.

 More precisely, it concerns the seeing of the cities involved: do [you]
 expect W, M, both, etc.


SEE!  Bruno Marchal just can't stop using those damn pronouns.


  The question is used in the traditional sense of you, before the
 duplication.


And that is exactly the problem, traditionally duplicating chambers do not
exist so the poor little pronoun you doesn't have to worry about the
complications such machines generate, but to really study this issue and
move into the big leagues Bruno Marchal must worry about them.

 The guy reason in comp, and knows already many things: that he will
 survive (you have agreed on that), that he will not feel the split


OK, so far so good the use of he is  causing no problems.

 that he will see only city


WHO THE HELL IS HE??

  John K Clark

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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-05 Thread meekerdb

On 10/5/2013 1:05 AM, Russell Standish wrote:

On Sat, Oct 05, 2013 at 09:40:18AM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 05 Oct 2013, at 01:16, Russell Standish wrote:


On Fri, Oct 04, 2013 at 04:51:02PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Read AUDA, where you can find the mathematical definition for each
pronouns, based on Kleene's recursion theorem (using the Dx = xx
trick, which I promised to do in term of numbers, phi_i, W_i, etc.
but 99,999% will find the use of them in UDA enough clear for the
reasoning. Yet, I have made AUDA as I was told some scientists were
allergic to thought experiments, and indeed studied only AUDA (and
got no problem with it).


Hi Bruno,

You meade this comment before, and I just passed over it, because it
didn't seem that relevant to the thread. I am familiar with your AUDA

from your Lille thesis, of course, but don't recall anywhere where you

discuss formalisation of pronouns.

Perhaps you do this in another treatment of the AUDA I haven't
read? Or perhaps
you have some slightly different idea in you mind that I'm missing?
Just wondering...

I thought I have explained this very often, but perhaps I have been
unclear, or took some understanding of Gödel 1931 for granted?

Bp (intended for its arithmetical interpretation, thus Gödel's
beweisbar) is the third person I; like in I have two legs, or like
in front of my code or body (scanned by the doctor). I refer often
to it by 3-I. This is standard self-reference.

Bp  p, is the knower, which plays the role of the first person in
AUDA. It is a solipsistic person unable to provide any definition or
name for who he is. It is the Plotinus universal soul, or the inner
God of the East. It is the non duplicable being which is unable to
feel the split in duplication experience. From his own perspective
he is not duplicable, not nameable, and not a machine (!).

The other hypostases are variant of those above. Normally Bp  Dt
should give a first person plural, and is as much nameable, and
definable in arithmetic than the 3-I. It is really the 3-I + a
reality (Dt).

The sensible person, in a reality is the knower + reality (Bp  p  Dt).
OK?

To sum up:
Bp = 3-I,
Bp  p = 1-I.
The Dt can be added, and just transform the provability into
probability (which needs ([]p   -  p), in formal treatment).

Bruno


I get that Bp is the statement that I can prove p, and that Bp  p is
the statement that I know p (assuming Theatetus, of course),


I'm suspicious of this definition of know anyway.  There are many things (infinitely 
many) that I can prove, but it would take me time and effort to do so; so I don't *know* 
them.  And in fact I can, in my life, only prove finitely many of them and I as I get 
older I suspect I'm forgetting old ones faster than I'm proving new ones. :-)


Brent


but in
both cases, I would say the pronoun I refers to the same
entity. English, and AFAIK French, do not make a distinction between
3-I and 1-I, so this is some new terminology that you have introduced,
with unclear connection to real pronouns. Why do you say they are pronouns?

Cheers


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Re: A challenge for Craig

2013-10-05 Thread meekerdb

On 10/5/2013 5:38 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On 5 October 2013 15:25, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


The question is whether swapping out part of the system for a
functional equivalent will change the qualia the system experiences
without changing the behaviour. I don't think this is possible, for if
the qualia change the subject would (at least) notice


That's the point I find questionable.  Why couldn't some qualia change in
minor ways and the system *not* notice because the system doesn't have any
absolute memory to which it can compare qualia. Have you ever gone back to a
house you lived in as a small child? Looks a lot smaller doesn't it.

Brent

If a normal brain does not notice changes or falsely notices changes
then a brain with functionally identical implants will also fail to
notice or falsely notice these changes.


But now this is a circular definition of functional.  It no longer refers just to what 
is 3p observable; now functionally identical is to include 1p qualia and the argument 
purporting to prove qualia must be preserved if behavior is preserved is turned into a 
tautology.


Brent




and say that the
qualia have changed, which constitutes a change in behaviour.
Therefore, the qualia and the behaviour are somehow inextricably
linked. The alternative, that the qualia are substrate dependent,
can't work.



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Re: A challenge for Craig

2013-10-05 Thread Stathis Papaioannou




 On 6 Oct 2013, at 7:03 am, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 
 On 10/5/2013 5:38 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 On 5 October 2013 15:25, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 
 The question is whether swapping out part of the system for a
 functional equivalent will change the qualia the system experiences
 without changing the behaviour. I don't think this is possible, for if
 the qualia change the subject would (at least) notice
 
 That's the point I find questionable.  Why couldn't some qualia change in
 minor ways and the system *not* notice because the system doesn't have any
 absolute memory to which it can compare qualia. Have you ever gone back to a
 house you lived in as a small child? Looks a lot smaller doesn't it.
 
 Brent
 If a normal brain does not notice changes or falsely notices changes
 then a brain with functionally identical implants will also fail to
 notice or falsely notice these changes.
 
 But now this is a circular definition of functional.  It no longer refers 
 just to what is 3p observable; now functionally identical is to include 1p 
 qualia and the argument purporting to prove qualia must be preserved if 
 behavior is preserved is turned into a tautology.

No, it refers only to externally observable behaviour. If your qualia are 
different this may affect your behaviour even if it's just to report that your 
qualia are different. But how could your behaviour be affected if the 
replacement is functionally identical? And if the qualia can change without 
behaviour changing then in what sense have the qualia changed? Not a minor 
change that doesn't get noticed but a gross change, like going completely blind 
or losing the ability to understand language. If consciousness is substrate 
dependent then such a thing should be possible.

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Re: A challenge for Craig

2013-10-05 Thread meekerdb

On 10/5/2013 1:25 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:





On 6 Oct 2013, at 7:03 am, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 10/5/2013 5:38 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
On 5 October 2013 15:25, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


The question is whether swapping out part of the system for a
functional equivalent will change the qualia the system experiences
without changing the behaviour. I don't think this is possible, for if
the qualia change the subject would (at least) notice

That's the point I find questionable.  Why couldn't some qualia change in
minor ways and the system *not* notice because the system doesn't have any
absolute memory to which it can compare qualia. Have you ever gone back to a
house you lived in as a small child? Looks a lot smaller doesn't it.

Brent

If a normal brain does not notice changes or falsely notices changes
then a brain with functionally identical implants will also fail to
notice or falsely notice these changes.

But now this is a circular definition of functional.  It no longer refers just to what 
is 3p observable; now functionally identical is to include 1p qualia and the argument 
purporting to prove qualia must be preserved if behavior is preserved is turned into a tautology.

No, it refers only to externally observable behaviour. If your qualia are 
different this may affect your behaviour even if it's just to report that your 
qualia are different. But how could your behaviour be affected if the 
replacement is functionally identical? And if the qualia can change without 
behaviour changing then in what sense have the qualia changed? Not a minor 
change that doesn't get noticed but a gross change, like going completely blind 
or losing the ability to understand language. If consciousness is substrate 
dependent then such a thing should be possible.


So you agree that there could be minor or subtle changes that went unnoticed?

Brent

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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-05 Thread Russell Standish
On Sat, Oct 05, 2013 at 10:34:11AM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 On 05 Oct 2013, at 10:05, Russell Standish wrote:
 
 
 I get that Bp is the statement that I can prove p, and that Bp  p is
 the statement that I know p (assuming Theatetus, of course), but in
 both cases, I would say the pronoun I refers to the same
 entity.
 
 G* proves that they are the same, but G does not. It is (in God's
 eye) the same entity, but the machine is unable to know, or to prove
 that, and that explains the difference of the perspective. 3-I has a
 name/description, but the 1-I has no name.

What is the modal logic statement corresponding to I? This is most unclear.

 
 
 
 
 English, and AFAIK French, do not make a distinction between
 3-I and 1-I, so this is some new terminology that you have introduced,
 with unclear connection to real pronouns. Why do you say they are
 pronouns?
 
 Because 1-I and 3-I are variant of the pronoun I. Natural language
 use the same word, because we tend to confuse them. 

Above, you stated that 1-I was Bp  p and 3-I was Bp. How do those
modal concepts relate to the English language pronoun I? Sorry to
press on this - I just want to know if there is something interesting here.

 The duplication
 experiences are the simplest tool for distinguishing them. The
 Theatetus' definition, when applied to Gödel's beweisbar also
 distinguish them, rather miraculously.

At this point in time, I do not see any connection between the UDA and
the AUDA. They seem to be based on entirely different sets of
propositions:

UDA:
  COMP (Yes doctor, etc)

AUDA:
  Theatetus and brethren, Sigma_1 restriction

If you are alluding to the distinction between communicable and
incommunicable statements, then I do understand the difference between
G and G*\G. But these don't seem to be pronouns...

Whether the G-G* distinction can be related to the FPI of the UDA, I'm
not sure. Plausibly so, I would say, but not definitively proved,
AFAICT, as they seem to be quite different theories.

 Plotinus and most serious people approaching the mind body problem
 saw the difference, but the 1-I is typically eliminated by the
 Aristotelian theologian (like the atheists, the fundamentalists,
 etc.).
 It is almost the difference between the body and the soul. The first
 does admit third person descriptions, the second has none (like
 Truth).
 
 Bruno
 
 
 
 
 
 
 Cheers
 -- 
 
 
 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
 Principal, High Performance Coders
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au
 
 
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 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
 
 
 
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Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: The confluence of cosmology and biology

2013-10-05 Thread Russell Standish
Sure, but a naked CA is far more probable than a Boltzmann brain that
in turn creates such a CA, ie more numerous in the Everything. So much
more so, that the BB idea would be negligible. An BBs creating BBs
would be even more exponentially suppressed.

Cheers

On Sat, Oct 05, 2013 at 10:41:27AM -0400, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:
 
 You may be absolutely correct, Professor, Standish, and likely are. But you 
 know, what I can say in response is that the programmer just is, which, of 
 course, bumps, what we know of causality. Or, more, precisely, a programmer 
 designs a program that creates a single hubble volume, or many, many. And, 
 yes, I am just moving the problem backwards, endlessly. I have of late become 
 curious about Boltzmann Brains resolving-confusing this issue of CA emerging 
 accidentally, versus a programmer. BB's may do this, as I have read that 
 Boltzmann and some contemporary physicists and mathematicians, consider this 
 BB(s) to arise out of the thermal disequalibrium, between the false vacuum, 
 and absolute vacuum in which the Hubble Volume began with. Allegedly, these 
 BB's or perhaps, just one BB, is said to have emerged from nothing 
 (vacuum--false vacuum) with false memories and a personality. 
 
 This is an absolutely, insane, notion, but the problem is-I sort of like it. 
 Maybe the programmer came from nothing, or get big CA? Or the Big CA 
 percolated up and created the big programer, or program, even? It is 
 definitely, insane, but also maybe insanely, great? To quote US skeptic, and 
 Atheist, Michael Shermer, Any sufficiently, advanced, ET is 
 indistinguishable from God.  Shermer was rifting on Arthur C. Clarke's 
 famous, quote, regarding technology, as you already know. But rather then 
 being repelled by the idea, I, personally,  feel good about it. I suppose 
 there's no accounting for taste. or whom one may encounter on a mailing list. 
 
 I am semi-serious in this proposal, that if this thinking turns out to at 
 least be conceivable, theoretically, then perhaps international SETI searches 
 could also include BB's as well as carbon-water beings such as ourselves? It 
 might be interesting to interview this big BB. I wouldn't even mind 
 genuflecting, because, hey, that's what us, primates, do when encountering a 
 'superior being.' 
 
 Thanks for viewing this post (if you do?)
 
 Mitch
 
 
 
 -Original Message-
 From: Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Fri, Oct 4, 2013 8:56 pm
 Subject: Re: The confluence of cosmology and biology
 
 
 On Fri, Oct 04, 2013 at 11:54:34AM -0400, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:
  
  Very well, Professor Standish, given that, could the Hubble Volume
 tself, then be considered as one CA? A CA that is 13.7 light years
 cross, and thus, that old? 
 That sounds like what Wolfram proposes.
 Is this CA, or all CA's something that emerges from thermo and fluid
 ynamics, or does it require (sigh!) a programmer, in the Jurgen
 chmidhuber, sense of the word?  
 I don't see why a programmer is required. Presumably, if is some sort
 f CA, it just is.
 Apologies for my obtuseness, but hey, this what all good primates do, connect 
 ots, make assumptions.
  
  Thanks, 
  
  Mitch
  
  
  -Original Message-
  From: Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
  To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
  Sent: Thu, Oct 3, 2013 8:13 pm
  Subject: Re: The confluence of cosmology and biology
  
  
  There are plenty of examples, but it will take too long to extract the
  literature. For example, the Navier-Stokes equations describing fluid
  flow can be simulated via an appropriate hex tiling (close packed
  spheres) CA (or generalised CA). I've seen people give examples of CAs
  simulating the reaction-diffusion equations that Turing used for his
  famous morphogenesis study.
  
  Cheers
  
  On Thu, Oct 03, 2013 at 05:38:45PM -0400, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:
   
   Does anyone know any  phenomena in nature or science that duplicates
   the behavior of Cellular Automata?  Does cell biology do the tasks
   of CA, orbis this merely, a mathematical abstraction? Does anything
   in physics come to mind, when refering to CA?
   
   
   -Original Message-
   From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
   To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
   Sent: Wed, Oct 2, 2013 10:18 am
   Subject: Re: The confluence of cosmology and biology
   
   
   On 02 Oct 2013, at 03:56, Russell Standish wrote:
   
   On Tue, Oct 01, 2013 at 02:54:51PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
   
   On 01 Oct 2013, at 01:30, Russell Standish wrote:
   
   The real universe is likely to be 11 dimensional, nonlocal with
   around
   10^{122} states, or 2^{10^{122}} possible universes, if indeed it
   is a
   CA at all. Needles in haystacks is a walk in the park by comparison.
   
   CA are local. The universe cannot be a CA if comp is correct, and
   the empirical violation of Bell's inequality 

Re: A challenge for Craig

2013-10-05 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 6 October 2013 08:13, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 So you agree that there could be minor or subtle changes that went
 unnoticed?

Yes, but it makes no difference to the argument, since subtle changes
may be missed with a normal brain. To disprove functionalism you would
have to show that it is possible to have an arbitrarily large change
in consciousness and yet the subject would be unable, under any
circumstances, to notice a change, nor would any change be externally
observable.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: A challenge for Craig

2013-10-05 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 5 October 2013 00:40, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 The argument is simply summarised thus: it is impossible even for God
 to make a brain prosthesis that reproduces the I/O behaviour but has
 different qualia. This is a proof of comp,


 Hmm... I can agree, but eventually no God can make such a prothesis, only
 because the qualia is an attribute of the immaterial person, and not of
 the brain, body, or computer.  Then the prosthesis will manifest the person
 if it emulates the correct level.

But if the qualia are attributed to the substance of the physical
brain then where is the problem making a prosthesis that replicates
the behaviour but not the qualia? The problem is that it would allow
one to make a partial zombie, which I think is absurd. Therefore, the
qualia cannot be attributed to the substance of the physical brain.

 If not, even me, can do a brain prothesis that reproduce the consciousness
 of a sleeping dreaming person, ...
 OK, I guess you mean the full I/O behavior, but for this, I am not even sure
 that my actual current brain can be enough, ... if only because I from the
 first person point of view is distributed in infinities of computations, and
 I cannot exclude that the qualia (certainly stable lasting qualia) might
 rely on that.





 provided that brain physics
 is computable, or functionalism if brain physics is not computable.
 Non-comp functionalism may entail, for example, that the replacement
 brain contain a hypercomputer.


 OK.

 Bruno


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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