Why would there be? Not unless R3-R6 are in a different area, in which case
they would need to create a Virtual Link to R1.
Fred Reimer - CCNA
Eclipsys Corporation, 200 Ashford Center North, Atlanta, GA 30338
Phone: 404-847-5177 Cell: 770-490-3071 Pager: 888-260-2050
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-Original Message-
From: alaerte Vidali [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Tuesday, August 12, 2003 1:42 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Distribution Router and OSPF [7:73933]
R1 is a ABR router; it connects to the backbone area and to area 50.
R2 is a distribution router connected to router R1 through area 50.
R2 connects to 4 other routers in area 50.
I am wondering if there are concerns about R2 being a distribution router
without connecting to area 0.
area 0 (R1)--area 50 ---(R2)--area 50(R3,R4,R5,R6)
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