Re: Is this how you would have done it?

2001-12-23 Thread Donald Burrill

On Sat, 22 Dec 2001, Ralph Noble asked:

 How would you have done this?
 
 A local newspaper asked its readers to rank the year's Top 10 news stories
 by completing a ballot form.  There were 10 choices on all but one ballot
 (i.e. local news, sports news, business news, etc.), and you had to rank
 those from 1 to 10 without duplicating any of your choices.  One was their
 top pick, 10 their lowest.  Only one ballot had more than 10 choices, 
 because of the large number of local news stories you could choose from.
 
 I would have thought if you only had 10 choices and had to rank from 1 to
 10, then you'd count up all the stories that got the readers' Number One
 vote and which ever story got the most Number One votes would have been
 declared the winner.

That is certainly one way of determining a winner.  But if one were 
going to do this in the end, there is not much point to asking for ranks 
other than 1, because that information is not going to be used at all.  
(Unless, of course, one uses a variant of this method for the breaking of 
ties, or for obtaining a majority of votes cast for the winner.)

 Not so in the case of this newspaper.  So maybe I do not understand
 statistics. 

Non sequitur.  You are not discussing statistics, you are discussing the 
choice of methods of counting votes.

 The newspaper told the readers there were several ways it could have 
 tallied the rankings. 

This is true.  Several may be an understatement.

 The newspaper decided to weight everybody's responses and gave each 
 first place vote a value of 10, each second place nine, each third place 
 eight, and so on. They then added together the values for each story and 
 then ranked the stories by point totals.
 
 So is this an accurate way to have tallied the votes? 

Why not, assuming they didn't err in their arithmetic?  In what sense do 
you want to mean accurate?  I would use the word to describe the care 
with which the chosen method was carried out, not the choice of method, 
as you appear to mean.   Accurate ordinarily refers, at least by 
implication, to how closely some standard or other is being met:  what 
standard did you have in mind?

 And why weight them since the pool in all but one category only had 10 
 items to choose from?

One answer is, precisely because all categories (but the one, and you 
haven't quite described what happened to the one, but I'll assume that 
only the ranks 1 to 10 were used in that case) had 10 items.  If you add 
up all the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, etc. votes _without_ weighting them (that is to 
say, weighting them equally instead of unequally), you get the same total 
for each item, and have no way of declaring a winner.  (This may not be 
true for the one category, since there are more than 10 items but only 10 
ranks to be apportioned among them.)

One could, of course, have weighted them according to their ranks
 (1st = 1, 2nd = 2, etc.) and chosen the one with the _lowest_ point 
total.  (This of course is equivalent to what the newspaper actually 
did:  this point total equals 11 minus the newspaper's point total, and
you get the same winners this way.)  Or according to the reciprocal of 
their ranks (1st = 1, 2nd = 1/2, 3rd = 1/3, etc.) and added those up, 
and taken the highest score.  This is not equivalent to the method 
actually used, although sometimes the results are not different. Etc.

If you conclude from all this that the choice of counting method for 
tallying votes is an arbitrary one, you are quite right.  It is.

-- DFB.
 
 Donald F. Burrill [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 184 Nashua Road, Bedford, NH 03110  603-471-7128



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Re: Is this how you would have done it?

2001-12-23 Thread Herman Rubin

In article [EMAIL PROTECTED],
Donald Burrill [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
On Sat, 22 Dec 2001, Ralph Noble asked:

 How would you have done this?

 A local newspaper asked its readers to rank the year's Top 10 news stories
 by completing a ballot form.  There were 10 choices on all but one ballot
 (i.e. local news, sports news, business news, etc.), and you had to rank
 those from 1 to 10 without duplicating any of your choices.  One was their
 top pick, 10 their lowest.  Only one ballot had more than 10 choices, 
 because of the large number of local news stories you could choose from.

 I would have thought if you only had 10 choices and had to rank from 1 to
 10, then you'd count up all the stories that got the readers' Number One
 vote and which ever story got the most Number One votes would have been
 declared the winner.

That is certainly one way of determining a winner.  But if one were 
going to do this in the end, there is not much point to asking for ranks 
other than 1, because that information is not going to be used at all.  
(Unless, of course, one uses a variant of this method for the breaking of 
ties, or for obtaining a majority of votes cast for the winner.)

 Not so in the case of this newspaper.  So maybe I do not understand
 statistics. 

Non sequitur.  You are not discussing statistics, you are discussing the 
choice of methods of counting votes.

 The newspaper told the readers there were several ways it could have 
 tallied the rankings. 

This is true.  Several may be an understatement.

This problem is the type of problem which results in Arrow's
Paradox.  The problem is, given the opinions of all individuals,
to form the opinion of the group.  Arrow showed in his thesis
that if certain reasonable conditions are satisfied, there is
no way of doing this other than dictatorial or conventional.

Now Arrow did not consider consistency under randomization.
With this included, the proof becomes very short, and can
be found as a comment in my paper showing that self-consistent
behavior must be Bayesian.  Briefly, the argument is that the
group evaluation must be a positive linear combination of those
of the individuals.  However, how do we compare the scales?
Any method to do this leads to paradoxes.
-- 
This address is for information only.  I do not claim that these views
are those of the Statistics Department or of Purdue University.
Herman Rubin, Dept. of Statistics, Purdue Univ., West Lafayette IN47907-1399
[EMAIL PROTECTED] Phone: (765)494-6054   FAX: (765)494-0558


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Re: How ro perform Runs Test??

2001-12-23 Thread Jim Snow


Glen [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote in message
[EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Chia C Chong) wrote in message
news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
  I am using nonlinear regression method to find the best parameters for
  my data. I came across a term called runs test from the Internet. It
  mentioned that this is to determines whether my data is differ
  significantly from the equation model I select for the nonlinear
  regression. Can someone please let me know how should I perform the
  run tests??

 You need to use a runs test that's adjusted for the dependence in the
 residuals. The usual runs test in the texts won't apply.

 Glen

I always understood that the runs test was designed to detect systematic
departures from the fitted line because some other curve fitted the data
better. In this context, it is a test for dependence of residuals.

There is a discussion of this at
 http://216.46.227.18/curvefit/systematic_deviation.htm

Any elementary text in Non-parametric Methods in statistics will
give an example.

Hope this helps  Jim Snow
[EMAIL PROTECTED]





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Re: How to prove absence of dependence between arguments of function?

2001-12-23 Thread Jim Snow


- Original Message -
From: Estimator [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Newsgroups: sci.stat.edu
Sent: Saturday, 22 December 2001 2:47
Subject: How to prove absence of dependence between arguments of
function?


 *** post for FREE via your newsreader at post.newsfeeds.com ***

 I've got linear function Y=f(x1;x2;x3;x4) of theoretical
 distribution, in addition x3=g1(x1), x4=g2(x1;x2) Also I've got
 empirical sample consists of N sets of these values (magnitudes)
 Y1 x11 x12 x13 x14
 ..
 Yn xn1 xn2 xn3 xn4
 as since x3 x4 are dependent of x1 x2 it's reasonable to
 evaluate x3 x4 by x1 x2 accordingly and analyse Y only from x1
x2.

If x3= g1(x1)  x3 and x1 can only be independent if the
function g1 is a constant, or at least degenerate wrt x1 and
similarly for Y.

 But I've got a strong believe that in fact all of the arguments
 are independent or dependence is insignificant. How to prove
 this mathematically using empitical observations?

You could plot x1 against x3 to convince yourself that there
was no tendency for the points to depart from a random scatter.
Similarly plot x1 vs x4  and x2 vs x4. But this would not give you
objective grounds to include or reject x3 and x4 from the
analysis.

In fact, even if x3 and x4 are uncorrelated with x1 and x2
,your best course would be to retain them in the analysis. Then
you can formally test to see whether they contribute any
explanatory power wrt Y.

If the explanatory power of the model is not significantly
improved by including x3 and x4, you have objective evidence to
exclude them from the model.

 Is any sense in making correlation matrix 4x4 (Pearson) and
 proving insignificance of coefficient of correlation (Student
 t-criterion for example) between arguments?

No. One reason is that you would have to conduct six
significance tests and the chance of the 1 in 20 level of the test
being exceeded by chance in one of them is too high. In any event
correlation is only a measure of LINEAR dependence and frequently
data has more complicated dependencies. There is no way to prove
independence from a data set, in the same sense that scientific
theories are never proved, only disproved. In particular, failure
to reject a null hypothesis is not proof of its correctness.

Dependence does not consist of only linear relationships and
lack of correlation does not imply independence. For example if X
is symetrically distributed  on (-1,1)  and Y = X^2 , then X and Y
are uncorrelated although functionally related.

Hope this helps   Jim Snow
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]




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Re: Is this how you would have done it?

2001-12-23 Thread Jay Warner



Ralph Noble wrote:

 How would you have done this?

 A local newspaper asked its readers to rank the year's Top 10 news stories
 by completing a ballot form. There were 10 choices on all but one ballot
 (i.e. local news, sports news, business news, etc.), and you had to rank
 those from 1 to 10 without duplicating any of your choices. One was their
 top pick, 10 their lowest. Only one ballot had more than 10 choices, because
 of the large number of local news stories you could choose from.

 I would have thought if you only had 10 choices and had to rank from 1 to
 10, then you'd count up all the stories that got the readers' Number One
 vote and which ever story got the most Number One votes would have been
 declared the winner.

If you only count the #1 votes, then the other positions do not count for
anything, and do not matter.  You loose the opportunity to discover that lots
of people felt a single item was #2.  You might, in fact, elect Spiro Agnew as
Gov. of Maryland.  Depending on your politics, this may be a good thing or not.

 Not so in the case of this newspaper . so maybe I do not understand
 statistics. The newspaper told the readers there were several ways it could
 have tallied the rankings. The newspaper decided to weight everybody's
 responses and gave each first place vote a value of 10, each second place
 nine, each third place eight, and so on. They then added together the values
 for each story and then ranked the stories by point totals.

this ranking system assumes that 2 second place votes are worth 1.8 times as
much as 1 first place vote.  And two 5th place votes are worth as much as one
first place vote.  My gut suspicion is that this puts more emphasis on the 3rd
 4th place finishers than most people would use, if they could award the
points of the scale as they choose.  Maybe not.

But this does give credit for the rank of a vote in the list.  Even a last
place finisher gets some credit.

 So is this an accurate way to have tallied the votes?

I think 'accurate' as a term here, does not compute.  there are many ways to
consider preference for items in a list of more than 2 items.  the complexity
increases with the length of the list.  the newspaper made up the rules; so
long as they followed them, it was 'accurate.'

 And why weight them
 since the pool in all but one category only had 10 items to choose from?

If they simply added the rank positions, 1, 2, 3... 10, then the 'winner' would
be the one with the lowest score.  Unless you play a lot of golf, this does not
make much intuitive sense to many people.  A simple first reaction is to
reverse the rank 'position' number, as they did.  Another way might be to
weight the ranks by an exponential decay model, so that the difference in
weight between a #1 and #2 would be greater than the difference between a #8
and #9.  Like I said, the newspaper can make up whatever rules they like.

 Thanks!

 Ralph Noble

 [EMAIL PROTECTED]

Cheers  lots of diverse Holidays,

Jay
--
Jay Warner
Principal Scientist
Warner Consulting, Inc.
 North Green Bay Road
Racine, WI 53404-1216
USA

Ph: (262) 634-9100
FAX: (262) 681-1133
email: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
web: http://www.a2q.com

The A2Q Method (tm) -- What do you want to improve today?






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Re: Maximum Likelihood Question

2001-12-23 Thread Jimc10

To all, 

Thanks so much for all your ideas and insights thus far. To those who have
suggested a Baysean approach, I am interested, but I am weeks away from
understanding it well enough to figure out if I can use it. Also, I think I am
close to developing a usable technique along my current line. The only
constrain on my parameters is that they remain positive. Occassionally one will
approach zero, not often. I am reposting because I have another focused
question stemming from the same problem.

MY SITUATION:

I am studying a time-dependent stochastic Markov process. The conventional
method involved fitting data to exponential decay equations and using the
F-test to determine the number of components required. The problem (as I am
sure you all see) is that the F-test assumes the data is iid, and conflicting
results are often observed.   As a first step, I have been attempting to fit
similar (simulated) data directly to Markov models using the Q-matrix and
maximum likelihood methods. The likelihood function is:

L= (1/Sqrt( | CV-Matrix |))*exp((-1/2)*(O-E).(CV-Matrix^-1).(O-E))

Where  | CV-Matrix |  is the determinant of the Covariance matrix, (O) is the
vector of observed values in time order and (E) is the vector of the values
predicted by the Markov model for the corresponding times. The Covariance
matrix is generated by the Markov model.

My two objectives are to determine the number of free parameters, and to
estimate the values of the parameters. Because the data is simulated I know
what the number of parameters and their values are. 

MY PROBLEM:

I have been using the Log(Likelihood) method to compare the results of fitting
to the correct model and to a simpler sub-hypothesis (H0). I am getting very
small Log(Likelihood ratio)?¡¥s  when I know the more complex model is correct
(i.e. H0 should be rejected). When I first observed this I tried increasing the
N values, and found a decrease rather than an
increase in the Log(Likelihood ratio).  When I look at the likelihood function,
the weighted Sum of Squares factor : (  (O-E).CV^-1.(O-E)  ) is very different
between the two hypotheses (i.e. favoring rejection of H0), but difference in
the determinant portion ( (1/Sqrt( | CV-Matrix |))  ) is in the opposite
direction. As a result, the Log(Likelihood ratio) is below that needed to
reject H0. 


I asked about just fitting  (O-E).CV^-1.(O-E) and was reminded that without the
determinant factor, the likelihood would be maximized by simply increasing the
variance. This appears to be true in practice. 

In learning about the quadratic form, I read in several places that, for the
distribution to approach a chi square distribution, the Covariance Matrix must
be idempotent (CV^2 = CV). I am almost certain this is not the case. 

I am hoping to get feedback on this idea:

THE QUESTION: Following maximization of the full likelihood function ( 
(1/Sqrt( | CV-Matrix |))*exp((-1/2)*(O-E).(CV-Matrix^-1).(O-E))  ) for both
models, can I use the F-test to compare the weighted Sum of Squares (i.e.
(O-E).CV^-1.(O-E)   )  of the two models, rather than the likelihood ratio
test. In other words, does correcting each (O-E) for its variance and
covariance legitimize the F-test?

Any insight is greatly appreciated. Thanks for your patience and consideration.

James Celentano





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