Re: Central Limit Theorem Proof using MGF

2001-04-23 Thread Herman Rubin

In article 9c0djs$9vs$[EMAIL PROTECTED],
Glen Barnett [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

Herman Rubin [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote in message
9bv951$[EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:9bv951$[EMAIL PROTECTED]...

 Any good book on probability using measure theory
 is likely to have the necessary proofs.

I get the impression he has seen the proof in the case of the MGF,
and is after a book that gives more explanation of the steps in the
argument than is usually found.

[He may well not have any measure theory. He may not have any
complex variables. That's probably why he's working with MGFs]

I know lots of proofs of the Central Limit Theorem.  But I
do not know any using the MGF directly.

The easiest one follows Lindeberg, and shows that there is
a bound on the difference between the cdf and the normal
cdf by a substitution process.  It can be given in an
undergraduate course at the advanced calculus level.




-- 
This address is for information only.  I do not claim that these views
are those of the Statistics Department or of Purdue University.
Herman Rubin, Dept. of Statistics, Purdue Univ., West Lafayette IN47907-1399
[EMAIL PROTECTED] Phone: (765)494-6054   FAX: (765)494-0558


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Re: Simple ? on standardized regression coeff.

2001-04-23 Thread d.u.

I now think that the betas would have to be within [-1,+1]. Suppose you do a
standarized regression with response Y, and have p variables (X matrix) already in.
Call the estimates for the current X matrix is beta_hat. Then by induction thru the
standard two-step least-squares betas should be [-1,+1]:

In the case p=1, beta_hat is [-1,+1]. If it's true for a certain p, then if you add
in another variable Z, beta_hat for this new varible (gamma_hat)=inv(Z'RZ)Z'RY. This
must also be [-1,+1]. When Z is added in, beta_hat for X becomes
inv(X'X)X'(Y-Z*gamma_hat), which are again [-1,+1]. Then it's clear that beta-hats
will be [-1,+1].


  Hi, thanks for the reply. But is beta really just b/SD_b? In the standardized
  case, the X and Y variables are centered and scaled. If Rxx is the corr matrix
  [ ... ]



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Re: ANCOVA vs. sequential regression

2001-04-23 Thread Donald Burrill

On Mon, 23 Apr 2001, jim clark wrote:

 On 22 Apr 2001, Donald Burrill wrote:
  If I were doing it, I'd begin with a full model (or augmented model, 
  in Judd  McClelland's terms) containing three predictors:
  y  =  b0 + b1*X + b2*A + b3*(AX) + error
   where A had been recoded to (0,1) and (AX) = A*X.[1]
 
 A number of sources (e.g., Aiken  West's Multiple regression:
 testing and interpreting interactions) would recommend centering X 
 first (i.e., subtracting out its mean to produce deviation scores). 

Yes, this is always an option.  Usually recommended to avoid certain 
computational problems that may arise if the distribution of X has a 
particularly low coefficient of variation, for example, and if the model 
contains many variables (and in particular interactions among them).  
Such problems are unlikely to arise in so simple a model as [1], and are 
more effectively dealt with when they do arise by deliberately
orthogonalizing the predictors.  I've never quite understood why 
deviations from a sample mean, which is after all a random function of 
the particular sample one has, should be preferred either to the original 
values of X (unless there ARE distributional problems) or to deviations 
from some value inherently more meaningful than a sample mean.

 You might also consider whether dummy coding (0,1), as recommended by 
 Donald, would be best or perhaps effect coding (-1, 1).

Also a possibility, of course.  Note that the interpretations of the 
several coefficients (b0, b2, and b3 in particular) change with changes 
in coding of the dichotomy A.
-- DFB.
 
 Donald F. Burrill [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 348 Hyde Hall, Plymouth State College,  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 MSC #29, Plymouth, NH 03264 603-535-2597
 184 Nashua Road, Bedford, NH 03110  603-472-3742  



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