Re: A regressive question

2001-05-16 Thread jim clark

Hi

On 15 May 2001, Alan McLean wrote:
 The usual test for a simple linear regression model is to test whether
 the slope coefficient is zero or not. However, if the slope is very
 close to zero, the intercept will be very close to the dependent
 variable mean, which suggests that a test could be based on the
 difference between the estimated intercept and the sample mean.

Would this not depend on the scale being used?  If the predictor
was some scale on which the normal range of values was quite
large (e.g., GRE scores?), then the value at 0 might be some
distance from the mean of Y even given a very shallow slope.  So
the test would somehow have to adjust for this; that is, the
standard error of the difference from the mean of Y would have to
vary as a function of the distance of 0 from the mean of X. And
presumably the test should produce the equivalent results to the
normal test of the slope. It would be interesting to see if there
is such a test.  Could it be related to the equations for
confidence interval for predicted Y given X?  There are separate
formulas for individual and group predictions and the widths do
vary with distance from the mean of X.

Best wishes
Jim


James M. Clark  (204) 786-9757
Department of Psychology(204) 774-4134 Fax
University of Winnipeg  4L05D
Winnipeg, Manitoba  R3B 2E9 [EMAIL PROTECTED]
CANADA  http://www.uwinnipeg.ca/~clark




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Re: A regressive question

2001-05-16 Thread Donald Burrill

If the mean of the predictor X is zero, the intercept is equal to the 
mean of the dependent variable Y, however steep or shallow the slope 
may be.  And as Jim pointed out, the standard error of a predicted value 
depends on its distance from the mean of X (being larger the farther 
away it is from the mean, the confidence band being described by a 
hyperbola).  It would seem to follow that a test such as Alan asks about 
would be unusable if the mean of X is too close to 0, and would be (too?) 
insensitive if the mean of X is too far from 0.  An intermediate region, 
where a test of intercept vs. mean Y might be useful, might perhaps be 
defined in terms of the coefficient of variation of X (or perhaps its 
reciprocal, if the mean of X were in danger of actually BEING zero). 

One rather suspects that any such test would be less powerful than the 
usual test of the hypothesis that the true slope is zero, which might 
be an interesting proposition (for someone else!) to pursue.
-- Don.

On Wed, 16 May 2001, Alan McLean wrote:

 The usual test for a simple linear regression model is to test whether
 the slope coefficient is zero or not. However, if the slope is very
 close to zero, the intercept will be very close to the dependent
 variable mean, which suggests that a test could be based on the
 difference between the estimated intercept and the sample mean.
 
 Does anybody know of a test of this sort?

 
 Donald F. Burrill [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 348 Hyde Hall, Plymouth State College,  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 MSC #29, Plymouth, NH 03264 603-535-2597
 184 Nashua Road, Bedford, NH 03110  603-472-3742  




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Re: regressive question

2001-05-16 Thread Alan McLean

Thanks to everyone who answered my question. The various reservations
about such a test were spot on, and helpful.

My own reservations were because, I think, it is not at all clear what
the null would be in this case. Are you testing mu = beta_0 (so using
the null model with fixed mean) or beta_0 = mu (so using the regression
model with potentially variable mean).

Alan

-- 
Alan McLean ([EMAIL PROTECTED])
Department of Econometrics and Business Statistics
Monash University, Caulfield Campus, Melbourne
Tel:  +61 03 9903 2102Fax: +61 03 9903 2007


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Re: Question

2001-05-13 Thread Rich Ulrich

On 11 May 2001 07:34:38 -0700, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Magill,
Brett) wrote:

 Don and Dennis,
 
 Thanks for your comments, I have some points and futher questions on the
 ussue below.
 
 For both Dennis and Don:  I think the option of aggregating the information
 is a viable one.  

I would call it unavoidable  rather than just viable.  The data
that you show is basically aggregated  already;  there's just one item
per-person.

  Yet, I cannot help but think there is some way to do this
 taking into account the fact that there is variation within organizations.
 I mean, if I have a organizational salary mean of .70 (70%) with a very tiny
 [ snip, rest]

 - I agree, you can use the information concerning within-variation.
I think it is totally proper to insist on using it, in order to
validate the conclusions, to whatever degree is possible.  
You might be able to turn around that 'validation'  to incorporate
it into the initial test;  but I think the role as validation  is
easier to see by itself, first.

Here's a simple example where the 'variance'  is Poisson.
(Ex.)  A town experiences some crime at a rate that declines 
steadily, from 20 000 incidents to 19 900 incidents, over a 5-year
period.  The linear trend fitted to the several points is highly
significant  by a regression test.  Do you believe it?

(Answer)  What I would believe is:  No, there is no trend, but it is
probably true that someone is fudging the numbers.  The 
*observed variation*  in means is far too small for the totals to
be seen be chance.  And the most obvious sources of error
would work in the opposite direction.  

[That is, if there were only a few criminals responsible for many
crimes each, and the number-of-criminals is what was subject 
to Poisson variation, THEN  the number-of-crimes should be 
even more variable.]

In your present case, I think you can estimate on the basis of
your factory (aggregate) data, and then you figure what you 
can about how consistent those numbers are with the 
un-aggregated data, in terms of means or variances.

-- 
Rich Ulrich, [EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html


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RE: Question

2001-05-11 Thread Magill, Brett

Don and Dennis,

Thanks for your comments, I have some points and futher questions on the
ussue below.

For both Dennis and Don:  I think the option of aggregating the information
is a viable one.  Yet, I cannot help but think there is some way to do this
taking into account the fact that there is variation within organizations.
I mean, if I have a organizational salary mean of .70 (70%) with a very tiny
s.d. it is different than a mean of .70 with a large s.d.  Should be some
way to account for this.  In addition, the problems with aggregation are
well documented and I believe in gereneral suggest that aggregated results
overestimate relationships.


Don:  I suggested that the problem was not a traditional multilevel problem.
Perhaps I am wrong, but here is where I thought the difference was.
Typically, say in a classroom problem, I want to assess the effect of
classroom characterisitcs (student/teacher ratio, teacher experience, etc.)
which are constant within classrooms on say student performance, which
varies within classroom across individuals.  The difference between this and
the problem I presented is that the OUTCOME is a contextual variable.  That
is, rather than individual-level varaition, the outcome caries only at the
organizational level.  Perhaps this can be modeled with MLMs, but it is
certainly different than the typical problem.

With regard to independence, I am talking about the independence of the
X2's.  That is X2-1 is not independent of X2-2 and X2-4 is not independent
of X2-5.  This is because these cases come from the same organization.  So,
if we simply regressed Y~X2, not accounting for X1 in the model, this causes
problems for ANOVA and regression, the GLM family more generally.  The lack
of independence here is exactly the reason for repeated measures and MLM
more generally, no?

Perhaps I am making to much of the issue, but the data structure is one that
I have not encountered before and I found it something of an interesting and
challenging problem, just hoping I might learn something along the way.
Would appreciate any comments on my comments above.

Oh, and just so there is no confusion, the data below I constructed.  It
reflects that structure of the data and nature of the relatinoship, but I
generated this data set.  In addition, the real thing does include variables
such as tenure, previous experience, etc. that are also used as covariates
at the individual level.  Of course, this also means that these would need
be aggregated as well if that approach is taken.

Best

 IDX1  X2  Y
 1 1   0.700.40
 2 1   0.800.40
 3 1   0.650.40
 4 2   1.200.25
 5 2   1.100.25
 6 3   0.900.30
 7 4   0.500.50
 8 4   0.600.50
 9 4   0.700.50


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Question

2001-05-10 Thread Magill, Brett

A colleague has a data set with a structure like the one below:

ID  X1  X2  Y
1   1   0.700.40
2   1   0.800.40
3   1   0.650.40
4   2   1.200.25
5   2   1.100.25
6   3   0.900.30
7   4   0.500.50
8   4   0.600.50
9   4   0.700.50

Where X1 is the organization.  X2 is the percent of market salary an
employee within the organization is paid--i.e. ID 1 makes 70% of the market
salary for their position and the local economy.  And Y is the annual
overall turnover rate in the organization, so it is constant across
individuals within the organization.  There are different numbers of
employee salaries measured within each organization. The goal is to assess
the relationship between employee salary (as percent of market salary for
their position and location) and overall organizational turnover rates.

How should these data be analyzed?  The difficulty is that the data are
cross level.  Not the traditional multi-level model however.  That there is
no variance across individuals within an organization on the outcome is
problematic.  Of course, so is aggregating the individual results.  How can
this be modeled both preserving the fact that there is variance within
organizations and between organizations.  I suggested that this was a
repeated measures problem, with repeated measurements within the
organization, my colleague argued it was not. Can this be modeled
appropriately with traditional regression models at the individual level?
That is, ignoring X1 and regressing Y ~ X2.  It seems to me that this
violates the assumption of independence.  Certainly, the percent of market
salary that an employee is paid is correlated between employees within an
organization (taking into account things like tenure, previous experience,
etc.).

Thanks


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Re: Question

2001-05-10 Thread dennis roberts

this is not unlike having scores for students in a class ... one score for 
each student and ... the age of the teacher of THOSE students ... for a 
class ... scores will vary but, age for the teacher remains the same ... 
but the age might be different in ANother class with a different teacher 
... in a sense, the age is like a mean  just like your turnover rate ... 
and you want to know the relationship between student scores and teachers ages

something has to give

i think you have to reduce the data points on X2 ... find the mean within 
organization 1 ... on X2 ... then have .4 next to it ... second data pair 
would be mean on X2 for organization 2 .. with .25 ... etc.

so, in this case ... you have 4 values on X2 and 4 values on Y ... so, what 
is the relationship between those??

look at the following:


  Row C7 C8

1   0.72   0.40
2   1.15   0.25
3   0.90   0.30
4   0.60   0.50

MTB  plot c8 c7

Plot


  - *
  0.48+
  -
  C8  -
  - *
  -
  0.36+
  -
  -   *
  -
  -
  0.24+*
+-+-+-+-+-+--C7
 0.60  0.70  0.80  0.90  1.00  1.10
Correlations: C7, C8


Pearson correlation of C7 and C8 = -0.957
P-Value = 0.043

there might be a better way to do it but ... looks like a pretty clear case 
of the greater the % of market the organization pays ... the less is there 
turnover rate


At 06:05 PM 5/10/01 -0400, Magill, Brett wrote:
A colleague has a data set with a structure like the one below:

ID  X1  X2  Y
1   1   0.700.40
2   1   0.800.40
3   1   0.650.40
4   2   1.200.25
5   2   1.100.25
6   3   0.900.30
7   4   0.500.50
8   4   0.600.50
9   4   0.700.50

Where X1 is the organization.  X2 is the percent of market salary an
employee within the organization is paid--i.e. ID 1 makes 70% of the market
salary for their position and the local economy.  And Y is the annual
overall turnover rate in the organization, so it is constant across
individuals within the organization.  There are different numbers of
employee salaries measured within each organization. The goal is to assess
the relationship between employee salary (as percent of market salary for
their position and location) and overall organizational turnover rates.



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Re: Question

2001-05-10 Thread Donald Burrill

On Thu, 10 May 2001, Magill, Brett wrote, inter alia:

 How should these data be analyzed?  The difficulty is that the data 
 are cross level.  Not the traditional multi-level model however.  

Hi, Brett.  I don't understand this statement.  Looks to me like an 
obvious place to apply multilevel (aka hierarchical) modelling.  
(Have you read Harvey Goldstein's text on the method?)  You have persons 
within organizations (just as, in educational applications of ML models, 
one has pupils within schools for a two-level model, and pupils within 
schools within districts for a three-level model), and apparently want to 
carry out some estimation or other analysis while taking into account the 
(possible) covariances between levels.
If you want a simpler method than ML modelling, the method Dennis 
proposed at least lets you see some aggregate effects.  (This does, 
however, put me in mind of a paper of (I think) Brian Joiner's whose 
temporary working title was To aggregate is to aggravate -- though it 
was published under another title.)  ;-)
Along the lines of Dennis' suggestion, you could plot Y vs X2 
(or X2 vs Y) directly, which would give you the visual effect Dennis 
showed while at the same time showing the scatter in the X2 dimension 
around the organization average.  For larger data sets with more 
organizations in them (so that perhaps several organizations would have 
the same (or at any rate indistinguishable, at the resolution of the 
plotting device used) turnover rate), you could generate a letter-plot 
(MINITAB command:  LPLOT), using the organization ID in X1 as a labelling 
variable.

Brett's original post presented this data structure:

 A colleague has a data set with a structure like the one below:
 
 IDX1  X2  Y
 1 1   0.700.40
 2 1   0.800.40
 3 1   0.650.40
 4 2   1.200.25
 5 2   1.100.25
 6 3   0.900.30
 7 4   0.500.50
 8 4   0.600.50
 9 4   0.700.50
 
 Where X1 is the organization.  X2 is the percent of market salary an
 employee within the organization is paid -- i.e. ID 1 makes 70% of the 
 market salary for their position and the local economy.  And Y is the 
 annual overall turnover rate in the organization, so it is constant 
 across individuals within the organization.  There are different 
 numbers of employee salaries measured within each organization.  The 
 goal is to assess the relationship between employee salary (as percent 
 of market salary for their position and location) and overall 
 organizational turnover rates.

 How should these data be analyzed?  The difficulty is that the data are 
 cross level.  Not the traditional multi-level model however.  That 
 there is no variance across individuals within an organization on the 
 outcome is problematic.  Of course, so is aggregating the individual 
 results.  How can this be modeled both preserving the fact that there is 
 variance within organizations and between organizations?

As I understand it (as implied above), this is exactly the kind of 
structure for which multilevel methods were invented.

 I suggested that this was a repeated measures problem, with repeated 
 measurements within the organization, my colleague argued it was not. 

This strikes me as a possible approach (repeated measures can be treated 
as a special case of multilevel modelling).  But most software that I 
know of that would handle repeated-measures ANOVA would tend to insist 
that there be equal numbers of levels of the repeated-measures factor 
throughout the design, and this appears not to be the case (your sample 
data, at any rate, have different numbers of individuals in the several 
organizations).

 Can this be modeled appropriately with traditional regression models at 
 the individual level?  That is, ignoring X1 and regressing Y ~ X2. 

That was, after a fashion, what Dennis illustrated.  In a formal 
regression analysis, I should think it unnecessary to ignore X1;  
although it would doubtless be necessary to recode it into a series of 
indicator-variable dichotomies, ot something equivalent.

 It seems to me that this violates the assumption of independence. 

Not altogether clear.  By this do you mean regression analysis?  
Or, perhaps, the particular analysis you suggested, ignoring X1?  Or...? 
And what assumption of independence are you referring to?  (At any 
rate, what such assumption that would not be violated in other formal 
analyses, e.g. repeated-measures ANOVA?)

 Certainly, the percent of market salary that an employee is paid is 
 correlated between employees within an organization (taking into 
 account things like tenure, previous experience, etc.).

Well, would the desired model take such things into account? 
(If not, why not?  If so, where is the problem that I rather vaguely 
sense lurking between the lines here?)
-- Don.
 

Re: Fw: statistics question

2001-04-08 Thread Herman Rubin

In article 003101c0bea9$31b26820$[EMAIL PROTECTED],  [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Hi,

The below question was on my Doctorate Comprehensives in
Education at the University of North Florida.

Would one of you learned scholars pop me back with possible appropriate answers.

Carmen Cummings




An educational researcher was interested in developing a predictive scheme to 
forecast success in an
elementary statistics course at a local university.  He developed an instrument with 
a range of scores from 0
to 50.  He administered this to 50 incoming frechmen signed up for the elementary 
statistics course, before
the class started.  At the end of the semester he obtained each of the 50 student's 
final average.

Describe an appropriate design to collect data to test the hypothesis.


What design?  The data is already collected, assuming that the
data matches the scores on the prediction instrument and the
final result of the student.

What hypothesis?  

The hypotheses and the assumptions come from the user of 
statistics alone; the learned scholars, as statisticians,
should only try to extract these form the user, and to
point out which assumptions are important and which are
of little importance.  For example, normality is usually
of secondary importance, and is usually quite false, while
the assumptions about the structure are of major importance.
-- 
This address is for information only.  I do not claim that these views
are those of the Statistics Department or of Purdue University.
Herman Rubin, Dept. of Statistics, Purdue Univ., West Lafayette IN47907-1399
[EMAIL PROTECTED] Phone: (765)494-6054   FAX: (765)494-0558


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Fw: statistics question

2001-04-06 Thread comyn

Hi,

The below question was on my Doctorate Comprehensives in
Education at the University of North Florida.

Would one of you learned scholars pop me back with possible appropriate answers.

Carmen Cummings


- Original Message -
From: "Carmen Cummings" [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: "David Cummings" [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Thursday, April 05, 2001 4:38 PM
Subject: statistics question


An educational researcher was interested in developing a predictive scheme to forecast 
success in an
elementary statistics course at a local university.  He developed an instrument with a 
range of scores from 0
to 50.  He administered this to 50 incoming frechmen signed up for the elementary 
statistics course, before
the class started.  At the end of the semester he obtained each of the 50 student's 
final average.

Describe an appropriate design to collect data to test the hypothesis.





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Re: Fw: statistics question

2001-04-06 Thread Rich Ulrich

I reformatted this.

Quoting a letter from Carmen Cummings to himself,
On 6 Apr 2001 08:48:38 -0700, [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 The below question was on my Doctorate Comprehensives in
 Education at the University of North Florida.
 
 Would one of you learned scholars pop me back with 
possible appropriate answers.

 the question
An educational researcher was interested in developing a
predictive scheme to forecast success in an elementary statistics
course at a local university. He developed an instrument with a
range of scores from 0 to 50. He administered this to 50 incoming
frechmen signed up for the elementary statistics course, before
the class started. At the end of the semester he obtained each of
the 50 student's final average. 

Describe an appropriate design to collect data to test the
hypothesis. 
= end of cite.

I hope the time of the Comprehensives is past.  Anyway, this
might be better suited for facetious answers, than serious ones.

The "appropriate design" in the strong sense:  

Consult with a statistician  IN ORDER TO "develop an instrument".  
Who decided only a single dimension should be of interest?  
(How else does one interpret a score with a "range" from 0 to 50?)

Consult with a statistician BEFORE administering something to --
selected?  unselected? -- freshman; and consult (perhaps) 
in order to develop particular hypotheses worth testing.  
I mean, the kids scoring over 700 on Math SATs will ace 
the course,  and the kids under 400 will have trouble.  

Generalizing, of course.  If "final average"  (as suggested) 
is the criterion, instead of "learning."
But you don't need a new study to tell you those results.

-- 
Rich Ulrich, [EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html


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Re: Paired t test Question

2001-04-05 Thread Paige Miller

"Andrew L." wrote:
 
 I am anlaysing some data and want to administer a paired t test.  Although i
 can perform the test, i am not totally familiar with the t-test.  Can anyone
 tell me whether the test relies on having a large number of samples, or
 whether i can still realte an accurate answer from n=4 (n= number of
 participants).
 
 Also, does anyone know what the F stands for - i think it means F-test.
 What is this test designed to show.

I think you should definitely get a basic introductory book on
statistics and brush up on your statistical knowledge. In regards to
your specific questions, the accuracy of your results doesn't really
depend on the sample size, but the precision does. Your comparison of
the means (You do want to compare means, don't you? You didn't
actually say that...) will not be very precise with just 4 samples. F
may stand for an F-test and it may stand for a lot of other things; I
don't normally associate doing a F-test with a paired t-test.

So I would advise, based upon your questions, don't just mechanically
crank a paired t-test through whatever software you have ... sit down
with someone who knows statistics and explain your entire problem to
him or her, and find out if a paired t-test is the right thing to do,
and how a sample size of 4 affects your comparison of the means. 


-- 
Paige Miller
Eastman Kodak Company
[EMAIL PROTECTED]

"It's nothing until I call it!" -- Bill Klem, NL Umpire
"Those black-eyed peas tasted all right to me" -- Dixie Chicks


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Easy question

2001-03-09 Thread Wei Xiao

Hi folks,

I have this problem at hand:

Suppose I went to 10 lakes.  I want to measure the relation with water
temperature (WT) and air temperature (AT).  So I can do a regression with
these 10 points like this:
|*
|*AT
|*
|__*__
 WT

However, to be sure, I took 3 AT's and 3 WT's at each lake.  Now any
particular AT is not correlated with WT.  Instead, they are kind of have
error in both X and Y axis.  Can somebody show me a better way to analyze
this?  I prefer talking in SAS or SAS macro.

Here is hypotheticall data sheet.
Lake, WT, AT
Lake11015
Lake11114
Lake11213
...

Notice there is no relation between WT and AT reading.  I can record this
way too:
Lake, WT, AT
Lake11013
Lake11114
Lake11215
...

Thanks in advance.

Best regard,
W




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Re: Trend analysis question: follow-up

2001-03-06 Thread Rich Ulrich

On 5 Mar 2001 16:41:22 -0800, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Donald Burrill)
wrote:

 On Mon, 5 Mar 2001, Philip Cozzolino wrote in part:
 
  Yeah, I don't know why I didn't think to compute my eta-squared on the 
  significant trends. As I said, trend analysis is new to me (psych grad
  student) and I just got startled by the results.
  
  The "significant" 4th and 5th order trends only account for 1% of the
  variance each, so I guess that should tell me something. The linear 
  trend accounts for 44% and the quadratic accounts for 35% more, so 79% 
  of the original 82% omnibus F (this is all practice data).
  
  I guess, if I am now interpreting this correctly, the quadratic trend 
  is the best solution.
DB 
   Well, now, THAT depends in part on what the 
 spectrum of candidate solutions is, doesn't it?  For all that what you 
 have is "practice data", I cannot resist asking:  Are the linear  
 quadratic components both positive, and is the overall relationship 
 monotonically increasing?  Then, would the context have an interesting 
 interpretation if the relationship were exponential?  Does plotting 
 [ snip, rest ]

"Interesting interpretation" is important.  In this example, the
interest (probably) lies mainly with the variance-explained: 
in the linear and quadratic.

It's hard for me to be highly interested in an order-5 polynomial,
and sometimes a quadratic seems unnecessarily awkward.

What you want is the convenient, natural explanation.  
If "baseline" is far different from what follows, that will induce 
a bunch of high order terms if you insist on modeling all the 
periods in one repeated measures ANOVA.  A sensible
interpretation in that case might be, to describe the "shock effect"
and separately describe what happened later.

Example.
The start of Psychotropic medications has a huge, immediate,
"normalizing"  effect on some aspects of sleep of depressed patients
(sleep latency, REM latency, REM time, etc.).  Various changes 
*after*  the initial jolt can be described as no-change;  continued
improvement;  or  return toward the initial baseline.  

In real life, linear trends worked fine for describing the on-meds
followup observation nights (with - not accidentally - increasing
intervals between them).
-- 
Rich Ulrich, [EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html


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Re: Trend analysis question

2001-03-05 Thread Robert Ellis


"Philip Cozzolino" [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote in message
[EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
 However, after the cubic non-significant finding, the 4th and 5th order
 trends are significant.

 Intuitively, it seems that if there is no cubic trend of significance,
 there will not be any higher order trend, but this is relatively new to
 me.

Hi Philip.

In a trend analysis, each test is orthogonal (independent) of the other
tests so the results reported are quite reasonable. Admittedly, in my
experience at least, it's a little unusual to have 4 out of the 5 trends
significant but such a finding does not indicate any problem with the
analysis. Are there equal intervals between the six levels of your factor?

Robert




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Re: basic stats question

2001-03-05 Thread Herman Rubin

In article [EMAIL PROTECTED],
Richard A. Beldin [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

You missed the point, Herman. I don't assert that these are independent
random variables. I claim that introducing students to the concept of
independent sample spaces from which we construct a cartesian product
sample space will make it easier for them to understand independent
events and random variables when we define them late.

I believe that this will not do what is expected, and might
even make it worse.

When we introduce sample spaces, we do not, and should not,
introduce the probabilities at that time.  If we did, we 
could not have inference, and also I believe that we need
to get across the idea that there is no "right" sample space
for a problem, but merely adequate representations; the 
point in a sample space can represent the result of the
experiment under consideration, but we might have more.
Otherwise, how can we consider the number of successes to
be a real-valued random variable?

Sample spaces can be Cartesian products without the
coordinates being independent; whenever we have a bivariate
classification, we have a Cartesian product, whether or not
there is independence.  We do not want students to consider
race and lactose intolerance to be independent.

Presenting oversimplified special cases seems to make it
harder for people to understand.  I deliberately postpone
all considerations of symmetry or equally likely, as the
students (and also those using probability and statistics)
have a major tendency to impose this when it is very
definitely not the case.  The "principle of insufficient
reason" contributed to the demise of Bayesian statistics
in the 19th century, and I see it going strong now.
-- 
This address is for information only.  I do not claim that these views
are those of the Statistics Department or of Purdue University.
Herman Rubin, Dept. of Statistics, Purdue Univ., West Lafayette IN47907-1399
[EMAIL PROTECTED] Phone: (765)494-6054   FAX: (765)494-0558


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Re: basic stats question

2001-03-05 Thread Herman Rubin

In article 52jo6.114$[EMAIL PROTECTED],
Milo Schield [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
But what does this (in)dependence really mean?
Can it change on conditioning?

.

This seems related to Simpson's paradox.
In any event, it seems that independence can be conditional.
Is this so?  If so, where is this discussed in more detail?

Why does it have to be discussed in more detail?  Conditional
probability is probability.  
-- 
This address is for information only.  I do not claim that these views
are those of the Statistics Department or of Purdue University.
Herman Rubin, Dept. of Statistics, Purdue Univ., West Lafayette IN47907-1399
[EMAIL PROTECTED] Phone: (765)494-6054   FAX: (765)494-0558


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Re: Trend analysis question

2001-03-04 Thread Karl L. Wuensch

Philip has been unfortunate enough to get significance on his 4th and 5th
order trends, and is hoping that nonsignificance of the 3rd order trend
means the higher order trends are spurious.  Sorry no.  Consider a perfect
quadratic relationship -- there will be absolutely no linear component.  I
wonder if one should even test for trends of an order that one could not
interpret.  They will always be present in some magnitude, and, given
sufficient sample size, will be "significant."  It might help to compute
eta-squared (divide the trend SS by the total SS) and then use that
statistic to decide whether you can dismiss the "significant trend" as
trivial in magnitude -- I have generally been able to do so when having
encountered such higher order trends that defy interpretation but meet our
criterion of statistical significance.

++ Karl L. Wuensch, Department of Psychology, East Carolina University,
Greenville NC 27858-4353 Voice: 252-328-4102 Fax: 252-328-6283
[EMAIL PROTECTED] http://core.ecu.edu/psyc/wuenschk/klw.htm



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Re: Trend analysis question - Thanks

2001-03-04 Thread Philip Cozzolino

Thanks Donald and Karl for your responses...

Yeah, I don't know why I didn't think to compute my eta-squared on the
significant trends. As I said, trend analysis is new to me (psych grad
student) and I just got startled by the results.

The "significant" 4th and 5th order trends only account for 1% of the
variance each, so I guess that should tell me something. The linear trend
accounts for 44% and the quadratic accounts for 35% more, so 79% of the
original 82% omnibus F (this is all practice data).

I guess, if I am now interpreting this correctly, the quadratic trend is the
best solution.

Thanks again for your help,
-Philip


--- 
"If we knew what we were doing,
it wouldn't be called research, would it?"

-Albert Einstein


in article [EMAIL PROTECTED], Philip Cozzolino
at [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote on 3/3/01 7:23 PM:

 Hi,
 
 I have a question on how to interpret a specific trend analysis summary
 table. The IV has 6 levels, so I had SPSS run the analysis checking up
 the 5th order trend.
 
 There is a significant linear and quadratic trend, but not cubic.
 
 However, after the cubic non-significant finding, the 4th and 5th order
 trends are significant.
 
 Intuitively, it seems that if there is no cubic trend of significance,
 there will not be any higher order trend, but this is relatively new to
 me.
 
 Any help is greatly appreciated.
 -Philip



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Re: basic stats question

2001-03-03 Thread Milo Schield

But what does this (in)dependence really mean?
Can it change on conditioning?
Suppose that we take into account a plausible confounder: defective
equipment.  Suppose blacks are more likely to have "defective equipment
(broken light, etc.).  Suppose we find that percentage who are black  among
those stopped for defective equipment is the same as the percentage who are
black among those having defective equipment.  Now we have independence at
one level and non-independence at another.

This seems related to Simpson's paradox.
In any event, it seems that independence can be conditional.
Is this so?  If so, where is this discussed in more detail?
"Lise DeShea" [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote in message
[EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
Re probability/independence, I've found that the most effective way to
communicate this concept to my students (College of Education, not heavily
math-oriented) is the following:
SNIP
Then you can move to an example of racial profiling.  Out of all the people
in your city who  drive, what proportion are African-American?
[p(African-American).] Now, GIVEN that you look only at drivers who are
pulled over, what proportion of these people are African American?
[p(African-American|pulled over).]  If being black and being pulled over are
independent events, then the probabilities should be equal.

You can illustrate this graphically by drawing a  large box to represent all
the drivers, then mark the proportion representing African-American drivers.
Then draw a smaller box representing the people being pulled over, with a
proportion of the box marked to represent the African-American drivers who
are pulled over.  If the proportions of each box are equal, then the events
are independent.

So now,  I would welcome comments from the more mathematically/statistically
rigorous list members among us!

~~~
Lise DeShea, Ph.D.
Assistant Professor
Educational and Counseling Psychology Department
University of Kentucky
245 Dickey Hall
Lexington KY 40506
Email:  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Phone:  (859) 257-9884







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Re: Trend analysis question

2001-03-03 Thread Donald Burrill

On Sun, 4 Mar 2001, Philip Cozzolino wrote in part:

 However, after the cubic non-significant finding, the 4th and 5th 
 order trends are significant. 
 
 Intuitively, it seems that if there is no cubic trend of significance, 
 there will not be any higher order trend, but this is relatively new 
 to me.
Your intuition is, in this case, incorrect.  The five 
trends are mutually independent in the sense that any combination of them 
may be operating.  (I am for the moment accepting the implied premise 
that a power function of the IV is a reasonable function to try to fit to 
your data.  In most instances I know of, this is not "really" the case, 
and the power function is more usefully thought of as an approximation 
to whatever the "real" functionality is.)  This may be seen by 
considering the following relationships between Y and X (think of them as 
DV and IV if you wish):

I. +   * *
   -*   *
   Y   -
   -*   *
   -
   + *  *
   -
   -   *  *
   - *
   -
   +-+-+-+-+-+-  X

II.+   *
   -  * **
   -
Y  -  **   *
   -
   +   * *   *
   -
   - *  * *
   -
   -   * *
   +-+-+-+-+-+-  X

In I. above, the linear trend is approximately zero, and the quadratic 
component of X accounts for nearly all the variation in Y.  A "rule" 
that claimed "If the linear trend is insignificant there can be no 
significant quadratic trend" is clearly false in this case.
 In II. above, both the linear and quadratic components of trend are 
virtually zero -- certainly insignificant -- and the cubic component 
accounts for nearly all the varition in Y.  Similar situations can be 
imagined, where only the quartic, or only the quintic, or only the 
linear, quadratic, and quartic, or any other arbitrary combination of 
the basic trends are significant, and other components are not.

If you are carrying out your trend analysis by using orthogonal 
polynomials (as you probably should be), try constructing the model 
derived from your linear + quadratic fit only, and plot those as 
predicted values against X;  then construct the model derived from linear 
+ quadratic + quartic + quintic, and plot those predicted values against 
X.  You may find it illuminating also to plot the residuals in each case 
against X, especially if you force the same vertical scale on the two 
sets of residuals.

I note in passing that you haven't stated how much of the variance of Y 
is accounted for by each of the significant components, nor how much 
residual variance there is after each component is entered.  That also 
might be illuminating.
-- DFB.
 --
 Donald F. Burrill[EMAIL PROTECTED]
 348 Hyde Hall, Plymouth State College,  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 MSC #29, Plymouth, NH 03264 (603) 535-2597
 Department of Mathematics, Boston University[EMAIL PROTECTED]
 111 Cummington Street, room 261, Boston, MA 02215   (617) 353-5288
 184 Nashua Road, Bedford, NH 03110  (603) 471-7128



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Re: basic stats question

2001-03-02 Thread George W. Cobb



 I think that introducing the word "independent" as a descriptor of
 sample spaces and then carrying it on to the events in the product space
 is much less likely to generate the confusion due to the common informal
 description "Independent events don't have anything to do with each
 other" and "Mutually exclusive events can't happen together."



I like Dick's idea a lot.  To me, part of the problem is that textbooks
fail to distinguish independence as a mathematical construct from
independence as a modeling construct.  Too many intro books put their
expository effort into the mathematical definition, and then get
obfuscatorily circular when it comes to the examples.  Mathematicians
*assume* independence, statisticians look at the data, and textbooks fail
to recognize the difference.  Dick's approach gives a nice way, in
an elementary seting, to help students recognize situations where an
assumption of independence is likely to stand up to empirical scrutiny.

I agree, too, Dick, that this should help with mutually exclusive
vs. independent.

  George Cobb

George W. Cobb
Mount Holyoke College
South Hadley, MA  01075
413-538-2401




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Re: basic stats question

2001-03-02 Thread Richard A. Beldin

This is a multi-part message in MIME format.
--D6CAE5CBE7F2826036C27891
Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii
Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit

The suits and ranks of cards in a bridge deck certainly can be presented
as independent sample spaces which we use as components of a cartesian
product. Whether one does so or not is a matter of choice. I am on
record as favoring the presentation as the cartesian product. Even the
sample mean and variance can be seen this way, in fact, every vector
valued random variable can be cast in the form of a random vector from a
cartesian product.

My point is that if we introduce independence as an attribute of sample
spaces which we proceed to study as one, we can better motivate the idea
of independent random variables and independent events.

--D6CAE5CBE7F2826036C27891
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begin:vcard 
n:Beldin;Richard
tel;home:787-255-2142
x-mozilla-html:TRUE
url:netdial.caribe.net/~rabeldin/Home.html
org:BELDIN Consulting Services
version:2.1
email;internet:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
title:Professional Statistician (retired)
adr;quoted-printable:;;PO Box 716=0D=0A;BoquerĂ³n;PR;00622;
fn:Richard A. Beldin
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--D6CAE5CBE7F2826036C27891--



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Re: Satterthwaite-newbie question

2001-02-28 Thread Christopher Tong

On Tue, 27 Feb 2001, Allyson Rosen wrote:

 I need to compare two means with unequal n's. Hayes (1994) suggests using a
 formula by Satterthwaite, 1946.  I'm about to write up the paper and I can't
 find the full reference ANYWHERE in the book or in any databases or in my
 books.  Is this an obscure test and should I be using another?

Perhaps it refers to:

F. E. Sattherwaite, 1946:  An approximate distribution of estimates of
variance components.  Biometrics Bulletin, 2, 110-114.

According to Casella  Berger (1990, pp. 287-9), "this approximation
is quite good, and is still widely used today."  However, it still may
not be valid for your specific analysis:  I suggest reading the
discussion in Casella  Berger ("Statistical Inference", Duxbury Press,
1990).  There are more commonly used methods for comparing means with
unequal n available, and you should make sure that they can't be used
in your problem before resorting to Sattherwaite.



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Re: basic stats question

2001-02-28 Thread Lise DeShea

Re probability/independence, I've found that the most
effective way to communicate this concept to my students (College of
Education, not heavily math-oriented) is the following:

Consider the student population of your university. Perhaps there
is a fairly equal split of males and females in the student body.
Now, put a condition upon the student body -- only those majoring in,
say, psychology. Do you find the same proportion of students who
are male within only psych majors, compared with the proportion of
students in the entire student body who are male? If gender and
psych major are independent, then the probability of a randomly chosen
person at the university being male should equal the probability of a
randomly chosen psych major being male. That is, 

p(male) = p(male|psych major) ==(p. of male, given
you're looking at psych majors)

Then you can move to an example of racial profiling. Out of all the
people in your city who drive, what proportion are
African-American? [p(African-American).] Now, GIVEN that you look
only at drivers who are pulled over, what proportion of these people are
African American? [p(African-American|pulled over).] If being
black and being pulled over are independent events, then the
probabilities should be equal. 

You can illustrate this graphically by drawing a large box to
represent all the drivers, then mark the proportion representing
African-American drivers. Then draw a smaller box representing the
people being pulled over, with a proportion of the box marked to
represent the African-American drivers who are pulled over. If the
proportions of each box are equal, then the events are independent.

So now, I would welcome comments from the more
mathematically/statistically rigorous list members among us!

~~~
Lise DeShea, Ph.D.
Assistant Professor
Educational and Counseling Psychology Department
University of Kentucky
245 Dickey Hall
Lexington KY 40506
Email: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Phone: (859) 257-9884





Re: basic stats question

2001-02-28 Thread Herman Rubin

In article [EMAIL PROTECTED],
Richard A. Beldin [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
This is a multi-part message in MIME format.
--20D27C74B83065021A622DE0
Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii
Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit

I have long thought that the usual textbook discussion of independence
is misleading. In the first place, the most common situation where we
encounter independent random variables is with a cartesian product of
two indpendent sample spaces. Example: I toss a die and a coin. I have
reasonable assumptions about the distributions of events in either case
and I wish to discuss joint events. I have tried in vain to find natural
examples of independent random variables in a smple space not
constructed as a cartesian product.

I think that introducing the word "independent" as a descriptor of
sample spaces and then carrying it on to the events in the product space
is much less likely to generate the confusion due to the common informal
description "Independent events don't have anything to do with each
other" and "Mutually exclusive events can't happen together."

Comments?

The usual definition of "independence" is a computational
convenience, but an atrocious definition.  A far better
way to do it, which conveys the essence, is to use
conditional probability.  Random variables, or more
generally partitions, are independent if, given any
information about some of them, the conditional
probability of any event formed from the others is the
same as the unconditional probability.  This is the way
it is used.

As for a "natural" example not coming from a Cartesian
product, consider drawing a hand from an ordinary deck
of cards.  On another newsgroup, someone asked for a
proof that the number of aces and the number of spades
was uncorrelated; they are not independent.  The proof
I posted used that for the i-th and j-th cards dealt,
the rank of the i-th card and the suit of the j-th are
independent.  For i=j, this can be looked upon as a
product space, but not for i and j different.

There are other examples.  The independence of the sample
mean and sample variance in a sample from a normal 
distribution is certainly an important example.  The 
independence of the various sample variances in an ANOVA
model is another.  The independence for each t of X(t)
and X'(t) in a stationary differentiable Gaussian 
process is another.

This is thrown together off the cuff.  There are lots of
others.
-- 
This address is for information only.  I do not claim that these views
are those of the Statistics Department or of Purdue University.
Herman Rubin, Dept. of Statistics, Purdue Univ., West Lafayette IN47907-1399
[EMAIL PROTECTED] Phone: (765)494-6054   FAX: (765)494-0558


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Satterthwaite-newbie question

2001-02-27 Thread Allyson Rosen

I need to compare two means with unequal n's. Hayes (1994) suggests using a
formula by Satterthwaite, 1946.  I'm about to write up the paper and I can't
find the full reference ANYWHERE in the book or in any databases or in my
books.  Is this an obscure test and should I be using another?

Thanks,

Allyson




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RE: Sample size question

2001-02-23 Thread Magill, Brett

G*Power is a powere analysis package that is freely available.  You can
download it at:

http://www.psychologie.uni-trier.de:8000/projects/gpower.html 

You can calculate a sample size for a given effect size, alpha level, and
power value. 


-Original Message-
From: Scheltema, Karen [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: Friday, February 23, 2001 10:07 AM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Sample size question


Can anyone point me to software for estimating ANCOVA or regression sample
sizes based on effect size?

Karen Scheltema
Statistician
HealthEast
Research and Education
1700 University Ave W
St. Paul, MN 55104
(651) 232-5212   fax (651) 641-0683
[EMAIL PROTECTED]



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RE: Sample size question

2001-02-23 Thread Scheltema, Karen

Thanks!  This was exactly what I was looking for!

Karen Scheltema
Statistician
HealthEast
Research and Education
1700 University Ave W
St. Paul, MN 55104
(651) 232-5212   fax (651) 641-0683
[EMAIL PROTECTED]

 -Original Message-
 From: Magill, Brett [SMTP:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
 Sent: Friday, February 23, 2001 9:53 AM
 To:   'Scheltema, Karen'; [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 Subject:  RE: Sample size question
 
 G*Power is a powere analysis package that is freely available.  You can
 download it at:
 
 http://www.psychologie.uni-trier.de:8000/projects/gpower.html 
 
 You can calculate a sample size for a given effect size, alpha level, and
 power value. 
 
 
 -Original Message-
 From: Scheltema, Karen [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
 Sent: Friday, February 23, 2001 10:07 AM
 To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 Subject: Sample size question
 
 
 Can anyone point me to software for estimating ANCOVA or regression sample
 sizes based on effect size?
 
 Karen Scheltema
 Statistician
 HealthEast
 Research and Education
 1700 University Ave W
 St. Paul, MN 55104
 (651) 232-5212   fax (651) 641-0683
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 
 
 
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Re: Sample size question

2001-02-23 Thread Alex Yu


You can use Sample Power from SPSS (a.k.a. Power and Preceision) or PASS 
2000 from NCSS. For more info, please visit:

http://www.spss.com
http://www.ncss.com
http://seamonkey.ed.asu.edu/~alex/teaching/WBI/power_es.html

---
--"Regression to the mean" is not always true. After 30, my weight never 
regresses to the mean.


Chong-ho (Alex) Yu, Ph.D., MCSE, CNE
Academic Research Professional/Manager
Educational Data Communication, Assessment, Research and Evaluation
Farmer 418
Arizona State University
Tempe AZ 85287-0611
Email: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
URL:http://seamonkey.ed.asu.edu/~alex/
   
  




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RE: Sample size question

2001-02-23 Thread DJNordlund

I tried the site but received errors trying to download it.  It couldn't
find the FTP site.  Has anyone else been able to access it?

Karen Scheltema
Statistician
HealthEast
Research and Education
1700 University Ave W
St. Paul, MN 55104
(651) 232-5212   fax (651) 641-0683
[EMAIL PROTECTED]

 -Original Message-
 From:Chuck Cleland [SMTP:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
 Sent:Friday, February 23, 2001 11:04 AM
 To:  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 Subject: Re: Sample size question
 
 "Scheltema, Karen" wrote:
  Can anyone point me to software for estimating ANCOVA or regression
 sample
  sizes based on effect size?
 
 Look here:
 
 http://www.interchg.ubc.ca/steiger/r2.htm
 
 Chuck


Karen,

I just looked, and was able to access the site and download the files.

Dan Nordlund



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Re: Sample size question

2001-02-23 Thread Rich Ulrich

On 23 Feb 2001 12:08:45 -0800, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Scheltema,
Karen) wrote:

 I tried the site but received errors trying to download it.  It couldn't
 find the FTP site.  Has anyone else been able to access it?

As of a few minutes ago, it downloaded fine for me, when I clicked on
it with  Internet Explorer.  The  .zip  file expanded okay.  I used
right-click (I just learned that last week) in order to download the
 .pfd  version of the help.

[ ... ]

 Earlier Q and Answer 
"Can anyone point me to software for estimating ANCOVA or regression
sample sizes based on effect size?"
  Look here:
  http://www.interchg.ubc.ca/steiger/r2.htm


Hmm.  Placing limits on R^2.  I have't read the 
accompanying documentation.  

On the general principal that you can't compute power
if you don't know what power you are looking for, I suggest reading
the relevant chapters in Jacob Cohen's book (1988+ edition).

-- 
Rich Ulrich, [EMAIL PROTECTED]


http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html


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