Re: convergent validity

2001-03-30 Thread h . goudriaan


Donald Burrill writes:

 On Thu, 29 Mar 2001, H.Goudriaan wrote in part:
 
  - my questionnaire items are measured on 5- and 7-point Likert scales,  
  so they're not measured on an interval level
 
   Non sequitur.
 
  and consequently not (bivariate) normally distributed;
 
 Real data hardly ever is.  Do you need it to be?  Usually the question of 
 interest is whether it's close enough to be an adequate approximation for 
 guv'mint work.

Ok, I understand and agree. But isn't it a bit naive to think that a group
of variables with 5 categories may result in a good factor analysis (or
whatever other parametric analyses)? 



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Re: convergent validity

2001-03-30 Thread Donald Burrill

On Fri, 30 Mar 2001 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 Donald Burrill writes:
 
  On Thu, 29 Mar 2001, H.Goudriaan wrote in part:
  
   - my questionnaire items are measured on 5- and 7-point Likert scales,  
  
   and consequently not (bivariate) normally distributed;
  
  Real data hardly ever is.  Do you need it to be?  Usually the 
  question of interest is whether it's close enough to be an adequate 
  approximation for guv'mint work.
 
 Ok, I understand and agree.  But isn't it a bit naive to think that a 
 group of variables with 5 categories may result in a good factor 
 analysis (or whatever other parametric analyses)? 

I frankly don't see the relevance of naivete to the question at 
hand.  It isn't, one gathers, as though you had any choice in the matter:  
either in the number of points on each item scale (since this is all, as 
you told Dennis, an existing scale) nor in the bivariate distribution of 
the two constructs in which (one gathers) you are interested.  (And you 
haven't said why you think you want these two constructs to be bivariate 
normal -- rather than, say, linearly related and unimodal.  Nor, for that 
matter, have you indicated whether you have examined the bivariate 
distribution in question and actually found it to depart worrisomely from 
a reasonable distribution.)
You also replied to Dennis that you have 16 items, 11 of which 
are alleged to measure one construct and 5 measure another.  That sounds 
to me like two variables, one with a potential range of 11 to 55 and the 
other with a potential range of 5 to 25 (for the 5-point scales;  where 
you have 7-point scales the potential range will be somewhat wider).  I 
should think that your interest would then lie in the validity of these 
two variables, not in the individual items that contribute to them;  
unless you want to do an item analysis of one kind or another.
You write also, "with 5 categories".  If you insist that the item 
responses must be treated as _categories_, rather than ordered points on 
a scale, then you ought, one would think, to be applying the methods of 
dual scaling (also known as correspondence analysis).  Or, if you allow 
that the responses are ordered, use the variation of dual scaling that 
applies to ordered categories.  (All this for dealing with data at the 
item level, of course.)  
You haven't explicitly said (that I recall), but you seem to be 
unwilling to treat the item responses as of approximately interval 
scale.  Why not?  Do you have evidence that the scale intervals are 
grossly unequal?  (That seems to me unlikely.)  Or are the distributions 
of responses for some items so peculiar as to generate serious doubt 
about the intervals?  (If so, you might wish to convert any such item to 
a series of 0/1 categories -- which brings us back to dual scaling.)
-- DFB.
 
 Donald F. Burrill [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 348 Hyde Hall, Plymouth State College,  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 MSC #29, Plymouth, NH 03264 603-535-2597
 184 Nashua Road, Bedford, NH 03110  603-471-7128  




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convergent validity

2001-03-29 Thread H.Goudriaan

Hi Statisticians,

First of all, sorry for posting my question in 3 groups, but I'm a bit
of a newby here and I can't find out what the difference is (where can I
read the Charters, or whatever it's called?).

I would love to have some help on the following:

I have 2 questionnaires assessing (physical and emotional) health of
heart patients. The 1st measures present state and it's assessed before
treatment and a couple of months after treatment, so that difference
scores can be calculated. The 2nd questionnaire is assessed after
treatment only, and asks respondents how much they have changed on every
aspect (same aspects as the first questionnaire) since just before
treatment.
Respondents received both questionnaires. Now I would like to
investigate the convergent validity of the two domains assessed with
both questionnaire versions. Is there a standard, straightforward way of
doing this? Someone advised me to do a factoranalysis (PCA) (on the
baseline items, the serially measured change scores and the
retrosepctively assessed change scores) and then compare the
factorloadings (I assume after rotation? (Varimax?)). I haven't got a
good feeling about this method for two reasons:
- my questionnaire items are measured on 5- and 7-point Likert scales,
so they're not measured on an interval level and consequently not
(bivariate) normally distributed;
- I have no idea how to compare the factorloadings. Could I calculate
confidence intervals for the loadings? (If yes: how?)

Thanks in advance for any help or references.

Heike



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Re: convergent validity

2001-03-29 Thread Donald Burrill

On Thu, 29 Mar 2001, H.Goudriaan wrote in part:

 - my questionnaire items are measured on 5- and 7-point Likert scales,  
 so they're not measured on an interval level

Non sequitur.

 and consequently not (bivariate) normally distributed;

Real data hardly ever is.  Do you need it to be?  Usually the question of 
interest is whether it's close enough to be an adequate approximation for 
guv'mint work.
-- DFB.
 
 Donald F. Burrill [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 348 Hyde Hall, Plymouth State College,  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 MSC #29, Plymouth, NH 03264 603-535-2597
 184 Nashua Road, Bedford, NH 03110  603-471-7128  



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