Re: Request for a glossary of acronyms

2004-02-09 Thread Jesse Mazer
Bruno Marchal wrote:
At 20:17 03/02/04 -0500, Jesse Mazer wrote:

Personally, I would prefer to assign a deeper significance to the notion 
of absolute probability, since for me the fact that I find myself to be a 
human rather than one of the vastly more numerous but less intelligent 
other animals seems like an observation that cries out for some kind of 
explanation.


I am not sure about that. Suppose a teacher has 10^1000 students. Today
he says to the students that he will, tomorrow, interrogate one student of 
the
class and he will chooses it randomly. Each student thinks that there is 
only
1/(10^1000) chance that he will be interrogated. That's quite negligible, 
and
(assuming that all student are lazy) none of the students prepare the 
interrogation.
But then the day after the teacher says: "Smith, come on to the board, I 
will
interrogate you".
I hope you agree there has been no miracle here, even if for the student, 
being
the one interrogated is a sort of (1-person) miracle. No doubt that this 
student
could cry out for an explanation, but we know there is no explanations...
Suppose the teacher and the student are immortal and the teacher 
interrogates
one student each day. Eternity is very long, and there will be arbitrarily 
large
period where poor student Smith will be interrogated each days of that 
period.
Obviously Smith will believe that the teacher has something special against 
him/her.
But still we know it is not the case ...
So I don't think apparent low probability forces us to search for an 
explanation
especially in an everything context, only the relative probability of 
continuation
could make sense, or "ab initio" absolute probabilities could perhaps be 
given for the
entire histories.

But your example assumes we already know the probabilities. If Smith has two 
different hypotheses that a priori both seem subjectively plausible to 
him--for example, "the teacher will pick fairly, therefore my probability of 
being picked is 1 in 10^1000" vs. "I know my father is the teacher's 
arch-nemesis, therefore to punish my family I expect he will fake the random 
draw and unfairly single me out with probability 1", then if Smith actually 
is picked, he can use Bayesian reasoning to now conclude the second 
hypothesis is more likely (unless he considered its a priori subjective 
likelihood to be less than 10^-1000 that of the first hypothesis).

This is a better analogy to the situation of finding myself to be a human 
and not one of the much larger number of other conscious animals (even if we 
restrict ourselves to mammals and birds, who most would agree are genuinely 
conscious, the number of mammals/birds that have ever lived is surely much 
larger than the number of humans that have ever lived--just think of how 
many rodents have been born throughout the last 65 million years!) Even if I 
a priori favor the idea that I should consider any observer-moment equally 
likely, unless I am virtually certain that the probabilities are not biased 
in favor of observer-moments with human-level complexity, then finding 
myself to actually be experiencing such an observer-moment should lead me to 
shift my subjective probability estimate in favor of this second sort of 
hypothesis. Of course, both hypotheses assume it is meaningful to talk about 
the absolute probability of being different observer-moments, an assumption 
you may not share (but in that case the Smith/teacher analogy should not be 
a good one from your perspective).

Another possible argument I thought of for having absolute probabilities as 
well as conditional probabilities. If one had a theory that only involved 
conditional probabilities, this might in some way be able to explain why I 
see the laws of physics work a certain way from one moment to the next, by 
describing it in terms of the probability that my next experience will be Y 
if my current one is X. But how would it explain why, when I examine records 
of events that happened in the past, even records of events before my 
subjective stream of consciousness began, I still see that everything obeyed 
those same laws back then as well? Could you explain that without talking 
about the absolute probability of what type of "universe" a typical 
observer-moment is likely to percieve himself being in, including memories 
and external records of the past?

Jesse

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Re: Request for a glossary of acronyms

2004-02-09 Thread Jesse Mazer
Jesse Mazer wrote:
> Saibal Mitra wrote:
> >
> >This means that the relative measure is completely fixed by the 
absolute
> >measure. Also the relative measure is no longer defined when
probabilities
> >are not conserved (e.g. when the observer may not survive an experiment
as
> >in quantum suicide). I don't see why you need a theory of 
consciousness.
>
> The theory of consciousness is needed because I think the conditional
> probability of observer-moment A experiencing observer-moment B next
should
> be based on something like the "similarity" of the two, along with the
> absolute probability of B. This would provide reason to expect that my
next
> moment will probably have most of the same memories, personality, etc. 
as
my
> current one, instead of having my subjective experience flit about 
between
> radically different observer-moments.

Such questions can also be addressed using only an absolute measure. So, 
why
doesn't my subjective experience ''flit about between  radically different
observer-moments''? Could I tell if it did? No! All I can know about are
memories stored in my brain about my ''previous'' experiences. Those
memories of ''previous'' experiences are part of the current experience. An
observer-moment thus contains other ''previous'' observer moments that are
consistent with it.
But I would expect this consistency to be a matter of degree, because 
sharing "memories" with other observer-moments also seems to be a matter of 
degree. Normally we use the word "memories" to refer to discrete episodic 
memories, but this is actually a fairly restricted use of the term, episodic 
memories are based on particular specialized brain structures (like the 
hippocampus, which if damaged can produce an inability to form new episodic 
memories like the main character in the movie 'Memento') and it is possible 
to imagine conscious beings which don't have them. The more general kind of 
memory is the kind we see in a basic neural network, basically just 
conditioned associations. So if a theory of consciousness determined 
"similarity" of observer-moments in terms of a very general notion of memory 
like this, there'd be a small degree to which my memories match those of any 
other person on earth, so I'd expect a nonzero (but hopefully tiny) 
probability of my next experience being that of a totally different person.

Therefore all one needs to show is that the absolute
measure assigns a low probability to observer-moments that contain
inconsistent observer-moments.
But if observer-moments don't "contain" past ones in discrete way, but just 
have some sort of fuzzy "degree of similarity" with possible past 
observer-moments, then you could only talk about some sort of probability 
distribution on possible pasts, one which might be concentrated on 
observer-moments a lot like my current one but assign some tiny but nonzero 
probability to very different ones.

In any case, surely my current observer-moment is not complex enough to 
contain every bit of information about all observer-moments I've experienced 
in the past, right? If you agree, then what do you mean when you say my 
current one "contains" past ones?

>
> As for probabilities not being conserved, what do you mean by that? I am
> assuming that the sum of all the conditional probabilities between A and
all
> possible "next" observer-moments is 1, which is based on the quantum
> immortality idea that my experience will never completely end, that I 
will
> always have some kind of next experience (although there is some small
> probability it will be very different from my current one).

I don't believe in the quantum immortality idea. In fact, this idea arises
if one assumes a fundamental conditional probability.
Yes, it depends on whether one believes there is some theory that would give 
an objective truth about first-person conditional probabilities. But even if 
one does assume such an objective truth about conditional probabilities, 
quantum immortality need not *necessarily* be true--perhaps for a given 
observer-moment, this theory would assign probabilities to various possible 
future observer-moments, but would also include a nonzero probability that 
this observer-moment would be a "terminal" one, with no successors. However, 
I do have some arguments for why an objective conditional probability 
distribution would at least strongly suggest the quantum immortality idea, 
which I outlined in a post at 
http://www.escribe.com/science/theory/m4805.html

I believe that
everything should follow from an absolute measure. From this quantity one
should derive an effective conditional probability. This probability will 
no
longer be well defined in some extreme cases, like in case of quantum
suicide experiments. By probabilities being conserved, I mean your 
condition
that ''the sum of  all the conditional probabilities between A and all
 possible "next" observer-moments is 1'' should hold for the effective
conditional probability. In ca