Re: John Conway, Free Will Theorem

2005-04-10 Thread Hal Ruhl
Hi Stathis:
My argument is that Turing's result points towards the MWI and makes it a 
deterministic outcome but I so far see no reason why all worlds should run 
concurrently.  So the judge's decision you experience now is an 
indeterminate [random] selection from all possible outcomes and gives the 
illusion that the judge has Free Will because our minds are too coarse 
grained to store the quantum level events.

Hal Ruhl 




Re: John Conway, Free Will Theorem

2005-04-10 Thread Hal Ruhl
Hi Stathis:
I left out that Turing's result seem to point towards a conclusion that the 
set of universe descriptions does not form a continuum but rather a 
countable set and thus these descriptions can generally differ by too large 
an amount to store all prior quantum level states - too coarse 
grained.  Thus the illusion of indeterminacy and thus free will.

Hal Ruhl 




Re: John Conway, Free Will Theorem

2005-04-10 Thread Russell Standish
Since this topic of legal responsibility regularly comes up in
discussions of free, it needs to be squashed from a great height.

The notion of legal responsibility has nothing whatsoever to do with
free will.

Legal responsibility is used for different purposes, depending on
whether the case is civil or criminal. In civil cases, legal
responsibility who pays cost and damages. In criminal cases, it used
to decide whether an agent should be punished. An agent here may be a
person, or a company, or any other legal entitity that that legal
tradition recognises.

The purpose of punishment is to prevent that occurrence from happening
again. Human society depends on punishment to ensure altruism
(reference to recent work by that Swiss guy here...). If the agent is
a learning system, then applying punishment to the agent can cause the
agent to learn - the stick of carrot  a stick. Alternatively, the
punishment is used to deter others from committing the same crime.

The notion of diminished responsibility is an interesting case. Here,
an agent may be found to be under the influence of another agent, so
one can attribute some of the responsibility to another
agent. However, as the Nuernberg trials showed, this is a very shaky
defence. It cannot be applied to the sources of randomness within your
brain - those sources of randomness are still part of the legal entity
that is you.

Pleading the defence of insanity can really only alter the
punishment. Punishing an insane person to make them learn will
probably not work - different sort of treatment, such as medical
intervention might be appropriate.

Religions have a notion of responsibility rather similar to the legal
one, however theological doctrine seems to have more to say about free
will. However, being essentially atheist, and unlikely to ever meet a
god face to face, this line of argumentation doesn't impress me much.

So I leave it at that - responsibility has nothing whatsoever to do
with free will.

Cheers


On Sun, Apr 10, 2005 at 03:19:19PM +1000, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Norman Samish writes:
 
 The answer to Stat[h]is' question seems straightforward.  Given quantum
 indeterminacy, thought processes cannot be predictable.  Therefore, genuine
 free will exists.
 
 ...Can someone please explain how I can tell when I am exercising 
 *genuine*
 free will, as opposed to this pseudo-free variety, which clearly I have no
 control over?
 
 Norman Samish
 
 So if, on a whim, I commit murder, I can present the following argument to 
 the judge:
 
 Your Honour, quantum indeterminacy made me do it. If you could have looked 
 inside my brain just prior to the moment when I decided to become a 
 murderer you would have seen a sodium ion teetering at the edge of a 
 protein ion channel embedded in the membrane of a particular neuron. If the 
 sodium ion passes through the channel it will raise the voltage across the 
 membrane to just past the threshold required to trigger an action 
 potential. The neurone will then fire, setting off a cascade of neuronal 
 events which I experience as the decision to kill an innocent stranger - 
 which I then proceeded to do. If, on the other hand, that crucial sodium 
 ion had not passed through the membrane channel, a different cascade of 
 neuronal events would have ensued, causing me to allow the stranger to live.
 
 I cannot deny that it felt like I was exercising my free will when I 
 decided to kill, but clearly this must have been a delusion. Firstly, the 
 cause of my decision was a random event (to the extent where 
 non-classical behaviour applies to the sort of biochemical reactions which 
 occur in the brain). Secondly, my decision had already been determined at 
 the point where the behaviour of that initial sodium ion was determined; 
 when I experienced myself deciding to kill, in a sense my brain had 
 already been programmed to do so. Therefore, I don't think it is fair that 
 I should be punished!
 
 --Stathis Papaioannou
 
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Re: John Conway, Free Will Theorem

2005-04-10 Thread George Levy




Russel, Stathis

I agree that free will and legal responsibility are different. Free
will is a subjective concept. It is a feeling that one has
about being "master" of one's decisions. In the terminology used in
this list, free will is also a "first person" issue.

Legal responsibility is an objective concept about restricting or
punishing members of a society, used to insure that the society is
functioning porperly. Legal responsibility is also a third person
issue. 

Confusion arise because we are mixing first person and third person
concepts, that is we assume that other members of our species (third
persons) have free will like ourselves (first person). Hence, we deduce
that others have free will and therefore they should be masters of
their own decisions to do "good and evil" - in relation to society
or to conscious deity - and therefore can be guided by a system of
rewards and punishments. This key assumption may be justified on
practical ground for the stability of our society and requires the
existence of conscious others.

Treating free will as a first person concept, implies that it is also
relative to the observer. For example a super being observing our brain
as we make decisions, will come to the conclusion that we have no free
will. Our choices, as Stathis said, is only the result of causally
driven sodium atoms pushing through nerve membranes. Similarly, a
programmer who understand his code thoroughly, can believe that his
program has no free will. We can also have a super being watching a
programmer watching his programthere is no absolute free will.

>From an absolute viewpoint, that is looking at the whole
plenitude, there is no quantum free will since any decision involving
quantum branching is no decision at all. 

>From the relative point of view of a classical superbeing
observing a human making a decision generated by a quantum event, the
superbeing must deduce that the decision is produced by free will
since, being classical, he cannot understand the causality behind the
decision. 

My point is that free will cannot be absolute. It is really a relative,
subjective and first person concept that depends on the state of
mind of the observer and the complexity of the observed entity in
relation to the observer.

George



Russell Standish wrote:

  Since this topic of legal responsibility regularly comes up in
discussions of free, it needs to be squashed from a great height.

The notion of legal responsibility has nothing whatsoever to do with
free will.

Legal responsibility is used for different purposes, depending on
whether the case is civil or criminal. In civil cases, legal
responsibility who pays cost and damages. In criminal cases, it used
to decide whether an agent should be punished. An agent here may be a
person, or a company, or any other legal entitity that that legal
tradition recognises.

The purpose of punishment is to prevent that occurrence from happening
again. Human society depends on punishment to ensure altruism
(reference to recent work by that Swiss guy here...). If the agent is
a learning system, then applying punishment to the agent can cause the
agent to learn - the stick of carrot  a stick. Alternatively, the
punishment is used to deter others from committing the same crime.

The notion of diminished responsibility is an interesting case. Here,
an agent may be found to be under the influence of another agent, so
one can attribute some of the responsibility to another
agent. However, as the Nuernberg trials showed, this is a very shaky
defence. It cannot be applied to the sources of randomness within your
brain - those sources of randomness are still part of the legal entity
that is you.

Pleading the defence of insanity can really only alter the
punishment. Punishing an insane person to make them learn will
probably not work - different sort of treatment, such as medical
intervention might be appropriate.

Religions have a notion of responsibility rather similar to the legal
one, however theological doctrine seems to have more to say about free
will. However, being essentially atheist, and unlikely to ever meet a
god face to face, this line of argumentation doesn't impress me much.

So I leave it at that - responsibility has nothing whatsoever to do
with free will.

Cheers


On Sun, Apr 10, 2005 at 03:19:19PM +1000, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
  
  
Norman Samish writes:



  The answer to Stat[h]is' question seems straightforward.  Given quantum
indeterminacy, thought processes cannot be predictable.  Therefore, genuine
free will exists.

"...Can someone please explain how I can tell when I am exercising 
*genuine*
free will, as opposed to this pseudo-free variety, which clearly I have no
control over?"

Norman Samish
  

So if, on a whim, I commit murder, I can present the following argument to 
the judge:

Your Honour, quantum indeterminacy made me do it. If you could have looked 
inside my brain just prior to the moment 

Re: John Conway, Free Will Theorem

2005-04-10 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
Russell Standish writes:
Since this topic of legal responsibility regularly comes up in
discussions of free, it needs to be squashed from a great height.
The notion of legal responsibility has nothing whatsoever to do with
free will.
Legal responsibility is used for different purposes, depending on
whether the case is civil or criminal. In civil cases, legal
responsibility who pays cost and damages. In criminal cases, it used
to decide whether an agent should be punished. An agent here may be a
person, or a company, or any other legal entitity that that legal
tradition recognises.
The purpose of punishment is to prevent that occurrence from happening
again. Human society depends on punishment to ensure altruism
(reference to recent work by that Swiss guy here...). If the agent is
a learning system, then applying punishment to the agent can cause the
agent to learn - the stick of carrot  a stick. Alternatively, the
punishment is used to deter others from committing the same crime.
The notion of diminished responsibility is an interesting case. Here,
an agent may be found to be under the influence of another agent, so
one can attribute some of the responsibility to another
agent. However, as the Nuernberg trials showed, this is a very shaky
defence. It cannot be applied to the sources of randomness within your
brain - those sources of randomness are still part of the legal entity
that is you.
Pleading the defence of insanity can really only alter the
punishment. Punishing an insane person to make them learn will
probably not work - different sort of treatment, such as medical
intervention might be appropriate.
Religions have a notion of responsibility rather similar to the legal
one, however theological doctrine seems to have more to say about free
will. However, being essentially atheist, and unlikely to ever meet a
god face to face, this line of argumentation doesn't impress me much.
So I leave it at that - responsibility has nothing whatsoever to do
with free will.
Cheers
I agree that the purpose of punishment is to prevent that occurrence from 
happening again; at least, this is what the purpose of punishment ought to 
be. But note that this *does* imply an assumption about the reasons people 
decide to act in a particular way, which is that it is not completely random 
or indeterminate. If it were, then punishment or the fear of punishment 
would not have any effect on future behaviour, would it?

Putting aside the pragmatics of the legal system, one's philosophical 
beliefs about free will can influence attitudes towards criminals. A 
criminal behaves as he does due to (a) his biology, (b) his past life 
experiences, (c) random physical processes in the brain, or some combination 
of the three. It is tempting to add (d) free choice, but how can this 
possibly be anything different to (a), (b) and (c)? It certainly feels like 
one can overcome (a), (b) and (c) by force of will, but the existence of 
this subjective experience has no more bearing on reality than, for example, 
the strong feeling that the Earth is flat, and that there is an absolute 
up/down in the universe.

--Stathis Papaioannou
_
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Re: John Conway, Free Will Theorem

2005-04-10 Thread Russell Standish
On Mon, Apr 11, 2005 at 10:30:25AM +1000, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 
 I agree that the purpose of punishment is to prevent that occurrence from 
 happening again; at least, this is what the purpose of punishment ought to 
 be. But note that this *does* imply an assumption about the reasons people 
 decide to act in a particular way, which is that it is not completely 
 random or indeterminate. If it were, then punishment or the fear of 
 punishment would not have any effect on future behaviour, would it?

Sure - a totally indeterminate human being would not be very
functional. Nor would a totally determinate one. Punishment would
probably be inappropriate in either case.

 
 Putting aside the pragmatics of the legal system, one's philosophical 
 beliefs about free will can influence attitudes towards criminals. A 
 criminal behaves as he does due to (a) his biology, (b) his past life 
 experiences, (c) random physical processes in the brain, or some 
 combination of the three. It is tempting to add (d) free choice, but how 
 can this possibly be anything different to (a), (b) and (c)? It certainly 
 feels like one can overcome (a), (b) and (c) by force of will, but the 
 existence of this subjective experience has no more bearing on reality 
 than, for example, the strong feeling that the Earth is flat, and that 
 there is an absolute up/down in the universe.
 
 --Stathis Papaioannou

Nothing I disagree with here.

-- 
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is of type application/pgp-signature. Don't worry, it is not a
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Mathematics0425 253119 ()
UNSW SYDNEY 2052 [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
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RE: Free Will Theorem

2005-04-10 Thread Jonathan Colvin
This discussion is exhibiting the usual confusion about what free will
means. The concept itself is incoherent as generally used (taken as meaning
my actions are not determined). But then in this case they must be merely
random (which is hardly an improvement), or we require recourse to a
Descartian immaterial dualism, which merely pushes the problem back one
level. 
 
The only sensible meaning of free will is *self-determination*.  Once looked
at in this manner, quantum indeterminacy is irrelevant. Our actions are
determined by the state of our minds. Whether these states are random,
chaotically deterministic, or predictably deterministic is irrelevant; the
only relevant question as to whether our will is free is whether our
conscious minds (our selves) determine our actions. In most circumstances,
the answer is surely yes, and so we have self-determination and hence free
will. Sleepwalking, reflexes, etc. are examples of actions that are not
consciously self-determined, and so are not examples of free will.
 
Jonathan Colvin
 **
 
 Norman Samish writes:  

The answer to Stat[h]is' question seems
straightforward.  Given quantum
indeterminacy, thought processes cannot be
predictable.  Therefore, genuine
free will exists.

...Can someone please explain how I can
tell when I am exercising 
*genuine*
free will, as opposed to this pseudo-free
variety, which clearly I have no
control over?

Norman Samish
 




Re: John Conway, Free Will Theorem

2005-04-10 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
Here are some interesting symptoms from sufferers of schizophrenia, which 
may be seen as disorders of free will:

1. Command auditory hallucinations. The patient hears voices commanding him 
to do sometimes horrific things, which he feels he *must* obey, and often 
does obey, even though he does not want to. It is not that there is a fear 
of consequences if he disobeys, like Nazi subordinates following orders. 
Rather, the perceived command seems to directly impinge on the 
decision-making centres of the brain, bypassing the frantic efforts of the 
judgement centres to counteract it:

I heard a voice telling me to strangle my mother... I was terrified, I 
didn't want to do this, but I couldn't resist, I *had* to do it.

2. Passivity phenomena. This is generally even harder to resist, and hence 
more dangerous, than command auditory hallucinations. The patient 
experiences his body being controlled like a puppet by an external force:

I was walking down the street when all of a sudden, I felt the satellites 
beaming a force field at me, which took control of my body and made me throw 
myself in front of the oncoming traffic. I tried to resist, but it was 
impossible.

3. Catatonia. The patient appears as if paralysed and unresponsive. Asked 
about the experience afterwards, he sometimes explains that he was actually 
aware of his surroundings, that he felt able to move and speak if he wanted 
to at any point, but that he did not want to do so, for reasons he cannot 
explain - just a whim. The fact is, catatonic patients are *not* able to 
move, even though they think they are, and could die if not given urgent 
medical care (IV hydration, ECT).

--Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Free Will Theorem

2005-04-10 Thread Norman Samish
If free will simply means self-determination then Jonathan is right, and 
to the extent we are self-determined we have free will.  He says, the only 
relevant question as to whether our will is free is whether our conscious 
minds (our selves) determine our actions.

But what about the sufferers of schizophrenia who Stathis Papaioannou 
referred to?  They exercise self-determination, and their mental state is 
such that their actions, at least in some cases, are completely predictable. 
Do they have free will?

Another example might be a self-aware computer of the future that would be 
programmed to have predictable actions as well as self-determination.  Would 
it have free will?

In both cases, the actions of the Self-Aware Organism are predictable, hence 
their will is not free.  They are bound by their destiny.

To have free will, the actions of a SAO cannot be completely predictable. 
To be free of complete predictability, at least some of the SAO's actions 
must ultimately depend on some kind of random event.  At the most 
fundamental level, this must be quantum indeterminacy.

Norman Samish
~~~

From: Jonathan Colvin [EMAIL PROTECTED]

This discussion is exhibiting the usual confusion about what free will 
means. The concept itself is incoherent as generally used (taken as meaning 
my actions are not determined). But then in this case they must be merely 
random (which is hardly an improvement), or we require recourse to a 
Descartian immaterial dualism, which merely pushes the problem back one
level.   The only sensible meaning of free will is *self-determination*. 
Once looked at in this manner, quantum indeterminacy is irrelevant. Our 
actions are determined by the state of our minds. Whether these states are 
random, chaotically deterministic, or predictably deterministic is 
irrelevant; the only relevant question as to whether our will is free is 
whether our conscious minds (our selves) determine our actions. In most 
circumstances, the answer is surely yes, and so we have self-determination 
and hence free will. Sleepwalking, reflexes, etc. are examples of actions 
that are not consciously self-determined, and so are not examples of free 
will.
Jonathan Colvin