Re: Bruno's argument

2006-07-18 Thread John M

Bruno,
\I don't see relevance in your example. I do not argue against singling out 
ONE number amongst all, I argue against singling out numbers amongst 
nuimbers AND non-numbers.

In this sense numbers make sense only in relation with  non-numbers.

John
- Original Message - 
From: "Bruno Marchal" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: 
Sent: Tuesday, July 18, 2006 10:25 AM
Subject: Re: Bruno's argument




Le 17-juil.-06, à 20:54, John M a écrit :

> In my 'wholistic' (not 'holistic!) 'taste' (<:I don't
> call my narrative a worldview or hypo or theory:>) the
> entire interconnection generates ANY further item
> (step in any process) with no excludability of any.
> One cannot pick ONE without tacitly including all
> others.


The same with numbers, I note in passing. You cannot believe in all
numbers except this one.
The number 17 exists only in relation with all the other numbers, in
some sense. I would say the mathematical truth is wholistic. Perhaps
even holistic ?

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/





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Re: K the Master Set (+ partial answer to Tom's Diagonalization)

2006-07-18 Thread George Levy




Hi Bruno

Each one of us like to do what we do best and we apply our preferred
techniques to the problem at hand. Thus a mechanic may solve the
pollution problem by building electric cars, and the cook may solve the
same problem by preparing vegetarian meals.

As a mathematician you are trying to compose a theory of everything
using mathematics, this is understandable, and you came up with COMP
which is strongly rooted in mathematics and logic.

I came up independently with my own concept involving a generalization
of relativity to information theory ( my background is
engineering/physics) and somehow we seem to agree on many points.
Unfortunately I do not have the background and the time to give my
ideas a formal background. It is just an engineering product and it
feels right.

I believe that what you are saying is right,  however I am having some
trouble following you, just like Norman Samish said. It would help if
you outlined a roadmap. Then we would be able to follow the
roadmap without having to stop and admire the mathematical scenery at
every turn even though it is very beautiful to the initiated, I am
sure. For example you could use several levels of explanation: a first
level would be as if your were talking to your grandmother; a second
level, talking to your kids (if they listen); a last level, talking to
your colleagues. 

George


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Re: SV: Only Existence is necessary?

2006-07-18 Thread John M

Bruno and 1Z:

both of you write extraordinary wise remarks in
approx. 3-4 times as many words than I can attentively
folloow. 
However - with mostly agreeing with the positions of
BOTH OF YOU - I may remark (hopefully in less words??)
*
I consider the epistemic development of our experience
about the world, from precaveman on, so I consider the
figments of earlier explanations reflected in ongoing
(scientific and common sense) thinking. Matter(ly?) is
a primitive view physicists picked up centuries (25+?)
ago and still ride it. I don't know better myself. 
Experimental (truth) is gathered by whatever
constructs the appropriate epistemic level allowed for
instrument design and for (sweatty) explanations on
"readings". 
Math contributed always to the misunderstganding by
equating the primitively cut model-views into soothing
matchings: to satisfy the 'savants'. As long as we do
abide by the past misunderstandings (and I mean
EVERYTHING gotten from past wisdom) and do not regard
them just as hints for a better thinking, we go in
circles. Example the multiverse as a replications of
this one we observe (as we can). I had no echo on 'my'
multiverse: universes in "all possible" qualia and
"all possible systems (some of them - maybe - CAPABLE
OF CONTACTING US. That reaches into sci-fi, into the
'zookeeper' theory, even a rational foundation for
many religious miracles and their systemic
explanations. E.g. teleportation marvels and Q-suicide
etc.)

1Z mentions 'mentality of matter' - of course, if we
consider the m-word as ideational functioning, any
following of 'rules' in the coexistence(?) simplified
in our physics (and logical) reductionism as 'laws'. 
Matter is more difficult, we 'grew' into percepts over
milennia to assign response to impact as 'hard',
'pain', 'warm', whatever. 

The "all possible" is a hard phrase, WE are not to
tell what is (=we find) possible or not. Matter,
particles are  not possible, they are explanations for
our age- long ignorance and so leveled explanations,
which went as inherited memes into our basic 'mental'
construction
and gives foundation to the ways we think.

I cannot elaborate on these features, cannot defend
them in an argument, cannot even 'think' in them: I am
(I hope) a human being with all the imperfections.

And I may be wrong, just as any other thinking person.

John Mikes  

--- 1Z <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: 
> 
> Bruno Marchal wrote:
> 
> > Le 12-juil.-06, � 18:06, 1Z a �crit :
> >
> > >
> > > I mean that is what material exists regardless
> of any mathematical
> > > justification.
> >
> > So this is your main hypothesis: what is material
> exist.
> > Now my problem is that a term like "material" is
> very vague in physics,
> 
> Huh ? Physics studies matter, energy, time and
> space. Those
> are its topics. Physics may not have a single neat
> definition of
> matter, but
> that does not mean physicsts are a lot to know what
> it is.
> Arguably, the whole of economics is a definition of
> "money",
> Likewise for physics and matter.
> 
> 
> > and  I would say experimentally vague since the
> birth of experimental
> > quantum philosophy (EPR, Bell, Shimoni, Feynman,
> Deutsch, Bennett ...).
> 
> Huh Electrons and photons are still
> matter...what *do* you mean ?
> 
> (BTW, Deutsch uses the Johnsonian "if it kicks back"
> appraoch
> to reality).
> 
> 
> > The big problem with the notion of *primary*
> matter =  how to relate
> > "1-experiences" with "3-experiments".
> 
> The mind-body prolbem boild down to qualia, and
> the problem of qualia and physics boils down to
> the problem of qualia and mathematical description
> 
> 
> Consciousness is a problem for all forms of
> materialism and physicalism
> to some
> extent, but it is possible to discern where the
> problem is particularly
> acute.
> There is no great problem with the idea that matter
> considered as a
> bare substrate can
> have mental properities. Any inability to have
> mental proeprties would
> itslef be a property and
> therefore be inconsistent with the bareness of a
> bare substrate. The
> "subjectity" of
> consciouss states, often treated as "inherent" boils
> down to a problem
> of communicating
> one's qualia -- how one feesl, how things seem. Thus
> it is not truly
> inherent but
> depends on the means of communication being used.
> Feelings and seemings
> can be more readily
> communicated in artistic, poetice language, and
> least readily in
> scientifi technical
> language. Since the harder, more technical a science
> is, the more
> mathematical it is,
> the communication problem is at its most acute in a
> purely mathematical
> langauge.
> Thus the problem with physicalism is not its posit
> of matter (as a bare
> substrate)
> but its other posit, that all properties are
> phycial. Since physics is
> mathematical,
> that amounts to the claim that all properties are
> mathematical (or at
> least mathematically
> describable). In making the transition from a
> physicalist world-view to
> a 

Re: SV: Only Existence is necessary?

2006-07-18 Thread 1Z


Bruno Marchal wrote:

> Le 12-juil.-06, à 18:06, 1Z a écrit :
>
> >
> > I mean that is what material exists regardless of any mathematical
> > justification.
>
> So this is your main hypothesis: what is material exist.
> Now my problem is that a term like "material" is very vague in physics,

Huh ? Physics studies matter, energy, time and space. Those
are its topics. Physics may not have a single neat definition of
matter, but
that does not mean physicsts are a lot to know what it is.
Arguably, the whole of economics is a definition of "money",
Likewise for physics and matter.


> and  I would say experimentally vague since the birth of experimental
> quantum philosophy (EPR, Bell, Shimoni, Feynman, Deutsch, Bennett ...).

Huh Electrons and photons are still matter...what *do* you mean ?

(BTW, Deutsch uses the Johnsonian "if it kicks back" appraoch
to reality).


> The big problem with the notion of *primary* matter =  how to relate
> "1-experiences" with "3-experiments".

The mind-body prolbem boild down to qualia, and
the problem of qualia and physics boils down to
the problem of qualia and mathematical description


Consciousness is a problem for all forms of materialism and physicalism
to some
extent, but it is possible to discern where the problem is particularly
acute.
There is no great problem with the idea that matter considered as a
bare substrate can
have mental properities. Any inability to have mental proeprties would
itslef be a property and
therefore be inconsistent with the bareness of a bare substrate. The
"subjectity" of
consciouss states, often treated as "inherent" boils down to a problem
of communicating
one's qualia -- how one feesl, how things seem. Thus it is not truly
inherent but
depends on the means of communication being used. Feelings and seemings
can be more readily
communicated in artistic, poetice language, and least readily in
scientifi technical
language. Since the harder, more technical a science is, the more
mathematical it is,
the communication problem is at its most acute in a purely mathematical
langauge.
Thus the problem with physicalism is not its posit of matter (as a bare
substrate)
but its other posit, that all properties are phycial. Since physics is
mathematical,
that amounts to the claim that all properties are mathematical (or at
least mathematically
describable). In making the transition from a physicalist world-view to
a mathematical
one, the concept of a material substrate is abandoned (although it was
never a problem
for consciousness) and the posit of mathematical properties becomes,
which is a problem
for consciousness becomes extreme.

> The naïve idea of attaching consciousness to physical activity leads to
> fatal difficulties.

Do you mean the Maudlin/Olympia/Movie argument ? But that is
very much phsyical activity as opposed to physical passivity.
If you are the kind of physicalist who thinks
counterfactuals and potentials are part of the total
physical situation, the Maudlin argument has little
impact.


> >> Well, why not, if that is your definition. I understand better why you
> >> say you could introduce "matter" in Platonia. Plato would have
> >> disagree
> >> in the sense that "matter" is the shadow of the ideal intelligible
> >> reality.
> >
> > What is material exists. Whether Platonia exists
> > is another matter. It is for Platonism to justify itslef
> > in terms of the concrete reality we find oursleves in,
> > not for concrete reality to be justify itself in terms
> > of Platonia.
>
> It depends of the assumptions you start from.

Of course. I start from the assumption
that I exist, since I do.

I don't start from the assumtion that numbers
exist supernaturally , floating around in Plato's
heaven.

> > The "intelligible" is a quasi-empiricist mathematical epistemology.
> > Mathematicians are supposed by Platonists to be able to "perceive"
> > mathematical
> > truth with some extra organ.
>
>
> That is naïve platonism. Already condemned by Plato himself and most of
> his followers. Read Plotinus for more on this (especially Ennead V).


The question then is whether numbers have any role at all,
if they have no epistemological role.

> >> I don't understand what you mean by "numbers don't exist at all".
> >
> > Well, I've never seen one.
>
>
> Again that would be a critics of naïve Platonism. As I have said:
> "number n exists in Platonia" means just that the proposition "number n
> exists" is true. For example I believe that the equation
> x^2 - 61y^2 = 1 admits integers solutions independently of any things
> related to me.

If that is all it means, it cannot possibly support an argument
whose conclusion is that something really exists.

The conclusion of a deductive argument has to be implicit in its
premisses.

> >> Numbers exists in Platonia in the sense that the classical proposition
> >> "4356667654090987890111 is prime or 4356667654090987890111 is not
> >> prime" is true there.
> >
> > It's true here. why bring Platonia into

Re: SV: Only Existence is necessary?

2006-07-18 Thread 1Z


Bruno Marchal wrote:
> Le 18-juil.-06, à 16:37, 1Z a écrit :
>
>
> > A computer simulation is obviously computable.
>
>
> Not necessarily from the first person povs.

It is far from obvious that a simulation even
contains 1stP POV's. In any case
that doesn't effect the logic: simulations
*might* be detectable, so they are not necessarily
indetectable.


> No. But what actually *seems* to exist, could emerge from mathematical
> truth.

No, same problem. There's no more any phenomenality to be
found in maths than any substantiallity.


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Re: SV: Only Existence is necessary?

2006-07-18 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 18-juil.-06, à 16:37, 1Z a écrit :


> A computer simulation is obviously computable.


Not necessarily from the first person povs.




> The word "emerge" is often used to hide magic.


I agree with you. Often, but not necessarily always.




> What actually exists cannot emerge from mere truths.


No. But what actually *seems* to exist, could emerge from mathematical 
truth.

Sometimes I feel we agree on everything except the theory we play with.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: SV: Only Existence is necessary?

2006-07-18 Thread 1Z


Bruno Marchal wrote:
> Le 18-juil.-06, à 12:30, 1Z a écrit :
>
> >> Quentin Anciaux: Because if you were in a "simulation" and you have
> >> managed to get out of it,
> >> how can you know you have reach the bottom level of reality (ie: the
> >> material
> >> world then) ? How can you know the new real world you are now in is
> >> the real
> >> world and not another simulation ?
> >
> > 1Z: e.g it has some non-computable physics.
>
>
> But comp and platonism already predict some non computable physics. You
> said it yourself by pointing correctly that platonism leads to the
> apparent possibility of HP universe (Harry Potter Universe, or flying
> pigs, or random noise, ...).

Platonism obviously implies non-computability,
since non-computable functions mathematically exist.

However, the claim was that we are in a computer simulation.

A computer simulation is obviously computable.

>The mystery with "naive comp" is that it
> remains something apparently computable in our neighborhood.
> And that  "mystery" cannot be used as a straightforward refutation of
> comp, once we look at the non trivialities of computer science and of
> consistent self-referential discourses.
>
> If we bet on comp, then we can already bet we already live in a
> simulation, the natural one which emerges from the "creative nature" of
> the relations between numbers.

The word "emerge" is often used to hide magic.

What actually exists cannot emerge from mere truths.


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Re: Bruno's argument

2006-07-18 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 17-juil.-06, à 20:54, John M a écrit :

> In my 'wholistic' (not 'holistic!) 'taste' (<:I don't
> call my narrative a worldview or hypo or theory:>) the
> entire interconnection generates ANY further item
> (step in any process) with no excludability of any.
> One cannot pick ONE without tacitly including all
> others.


The same with numbers, I note in passing. You cannot believe in all 
numbers except this one.
The number 17 exists only in relation with all the other numbers, in 
some sense. I would say the mathematical truth is wholistic. Perhaps 
even holistic ?

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: SV: Only Existence is necessary?

2006-07-18 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 18-juil.-06, à 12:30, 1Z a écrit :

>> Quentin Anciaux: Because if you were in a "simulation" and you have 
>> managed to get out of it,
>> how can you know you have reach the bottom level of reality (ie: the 
>> material
>> world then) ? How can you know the new real world you are now in is 
>> the real
>> world and not another simulation ?
>
> 1Z: e.g it has some non-computable physics.


But comp and platonism already predict some non computable physics. You 
said it yourself by pointing correctly that platonism leads to the 
apparent possibility of HP universe (Harry Potter Universe, or flying 
pigs, or random noise, ...). The mystery with "naive comp" is that it 
remains something apparently computable in our neighborhood.
And that  "mystery" cannot be used as a straightforward refutation of 
comp, once we look at the non trivialities of computer science and of 
consistent self-referential discourses.

If we bet on comp, then we can already bet we already live in a 
simulation, the natural one which emerges from the "creative nature" of 
the relations between numbers.

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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K the Master Set (+ partial answer to Tom's Diagonalization)

2006-07-18 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi Tom, Hi George,

George, and others, you can skip the "partial answer to Tom",  and go 
directly to "K, the master set" below.
Tom seems to propose an alternate proof, which does not convince me, 
although I cannot right now provide a full counter-example. Note that 
the section "K, the Master Set" could already put some light on that 
matter.



1) Partial answer to Tom:

Le 17-juil.-06, ˆ 22:42, Tom Caylor a Žcrit :

>> Now *your* G is just defined by G(n) = GEN2(n).
>
> But doesn't G output the range of one of the set of *all* partial
> recursive functions, whereas GEN2 outputs the code of a *fortran*
> program?  So shouldn't it be the following, where execute() actually
> executes the fortran program generated by GEN2(n)?
>
> G(n) = execute(GEN2(n))


I should have written G(n) = Gen2(n) (n)  (= execute Pn on n)




>> Tell me if you are convince that "your" and "my" G are programmable.
>>
>
> They are both programmable, but I think they are both non-*executable*
> on "k" (if G=Fk), for the same reason, self-reference.



Let me give you a counterexample with a sequence of total functions.

Let Hi be a RE sequence of (codes) of total functions. (so the seq. Hi 
is ­  from the seq. Fi)

Let GBruno be defined by GBruno(n) = Hn(n) +1
Let GTom be defined by GTom(n) = Hn(n)

Could GBruno belongs to the sequence Hi?
If GBruno belongs to the Hi, it means there is a number kbr such that 
GBruno = Hkbr, thus
GBruno(kbr) = Hkbr(kbr) = Hkbr(kbr)+1. So I can be sure that GBruno 
does not belong to the sequence Hi. OK? (the usual simple subtraction 
would lead to 0 = 1)
Does GTom belongs to Hi?
If GTom belongs to the Hi, it means there is a number kto such Gtom = 
Hkto, thus
Gtom(kto) = Hkto(kto), which is the case by definition of "your" Gtom. 
No contradiction occurs, so in principle the total function Gtom could 
belongs to the list, and indeed is equal to the sequence Hi, despite 
self-reference.

The same could be true for the partial recursive Fi.
I don't see any reason why, if G(n) is defined by Fn(n), G should be 
necessarily undefined on its own index. Your argument could rely on the 
way you implement G.

Actually I could perhaps build an ad hoc counterexample working for 
some particular enumeration of the Fi, but I need some time to do it, 
if it is possible

So I propose we come back on this after a while. Probably you will 
figure out what is happening by yourself. Actually your intuition is 
right: something happens with self-application (see below). If I try to 
explain all of it here, this could be a little confusing. What you need 
to be sure of is the fact that when G(n) is defined by Fn(n)+1, then 
G(k) will be necessarily undefined on all k such that G = Fk.
(Independently of the fact that you could be right that G'(k') is also 
undefined when G' (n) is defined by Fn(n), and k' is a code or index of 
G'; but your argument is not a proof because it depends on the precise 
way G is implemented). I must think ...




2) K, the Master set

Emil Post, the founder of Recursion Theory, introduced the following 
set (of numbers) which will appears to be fundamental. It will 
correspond, in term of set, to the universal machine. K will be an 
universal RE set, capable of "generating" all RE sets.

I recall the code of the RE sets are generable, and the RE sets are the 
domain Wi of the Fi.

Definition: K is the set of numbers x such that Fx(x) is defined.

So K is the set of natural number x such that the xth programs in the 
enumeration of the codes of all programs does stop when apply on 
itself. I prefer to talk about self-application instead of 
self-reference (to follow standard terminology).


I give exercises (if only because my office is an oven and my brain is 
boiling hot):

1) Is K an RE set?   Answer: yes  (why?)

2) Is N \ K an RE set?  Answer: no  (why? Hint: diagonalization)

3) From this conclude that the halting problem is insoluble.

4) try to justify that someone having an algorithm for generating K 
will be able to generate any Wi. Put in another way, from a mechanical 
solution to the problem "does Fx(x) stop" we can construct an algorithm 
solving the apparent more general problem "does Fx(y)" stop.

5) From "2)" show that N \ K is productive (like the set of codes of 
the computable growing functions). That is N \ K is not only not-RE, 
but is constructively not-RE. You need to find an algorithm A such that 
for any Wi included in N \ K, A(i) will give an element in N \ K which 
is not in Wi.  If you look at that Wi as an attempt to enumerate all N 
\ K, you can see the algorithm A as providing a counter-example. 
Conclude that N \ K can be better and better approximated by iterations 
in the constructive transfinite (like we done with the fairy).


MAIN DEFINITION (Emil Post):

A set E (of numbers) is called CREATIVE if
   1) E is RE
   2) N \  E is productive

So the exercise can be sum up into: show that K is a creative set. 
There are deep relations between creative se

Re: SV: Only Existence is necessary?

2006-07-18 Thread 1Z


Quentin Anciaux wrote:

> Le Mercredi 12 Juillet 2006 23:54, 1Z a écrit :
> > Bruno-computationalism is standard computationalism+platonism.
> > Since I reject platomnism, I reject Bruno-computationalism
> > (whilst having rather less problem with the standard computational
> > thesis, that "cognition is computation").
>
> If computationalism is true then platonism must also be true.
>
> Because if you were in a "simulation" and you have managed to get out of it,
> how can you know you have reach the bottom level of reality (ie: the material
> world then) ? How can you know the new real world you are now in is the real
> world and not another simulation ?

e.g it has some non-computable physics.

>  It is the turtle on the turtle on the
> turtle... Even if you take "standard computational thesis", then by the
> reasoning upper you must reject a bottom level real... ie: a material world,
> a stuffy world... every reality is stuffy and real (from the inside).

"(seemingly) real (from the inside" just doesn't add up
to "really real". Your argument only works if you adopt
solipsistic premises to start with -- if you just want to have your
sensations explained. All you are saying is that if you don't
care about what is ultimately true, you do need to bother
with what is ultimately real. Equally, if you are interested in
ultimate
truth, you will need ultimate reality. It has no impact on a realist at
all.

(BTW, the same arguments that say you don't need matter mean
you don't need Other Minds, so solipsism is very much the word!)


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