RITSIAR (was Numbers, Machine and Father Ted)

2006-11-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 02-nov.-06, à 17:34, David Nyman a écrit :




 Bruno Marchal wrote:

 I don't understand really what you mean by AUDA is not RITSIAR. AUDA
 is just the lobian interview, or if you prefer the complete
 mathematical formalization of the UDA reasoning. In some sense you can
 interpret it as the eventual elimination of the yes doctor 
 hypothesis
 in the UDA argument (but here I do simplify a little bit).

 Yes, sorry, perhaps I should have said 'if number is not RITSIAR, is
 anything?' The intention behind the question is to find out how and
 where you would apply RITSIAR in your schema - if at all - because
 Peter has been willing to do this but you haven't. I just want to know
 why.




I recall RITSIAR = Real In The Same Sense That I Am Real (introduced by 
Peter).

Now, the notion of existence is very difficult, and the notion of 
personal existence is still more difficult, and was the object of the 
debate.

Take the expression I am real. Does it mean I am real and this is 
something I cannot doubt about, in which case I refer to the first 
person, or is it  my physical body is real, in which case it refers 
to a third person description of I based on some theory (for example 
physics, or comp, etc.).

So RITSIAR is an highly ambiguous which presuppose many points we were 
arguing about.

Let me try shortly to make it less ambiguous in the frame of the AUDA. 
Now I cannot be 100% rigorous without being long and boring, so I ask 
you some indulgence, and I am just trying to convey the idea.

As you know I am realist or platonist about numbers and their 
arithmetical relations. For example I believe in theorem like all 
numbers can be written as a sum of four square (Lagrange theorem). I 
take such a truth as being completely independent of me, you, time, 
place. I take such truth as being primitive and beyond time and space, 
a-physical if you want.
Now I also believe in 1-persons, or souls, etc. I am not a solipsist, 
and I really believe in my own current experience, but also in yours 
even if I am currently feeling them differently.

I don't believe at all that a first person experience is a number, nor 
do I believe any first person can believe to be a number. Still, I 
assume comp, so there must be a relation between 1-person experience 
and numbers. Indeed persons can manifest themselves relatively to me 
when they are related to some computations (brain activity with comp 
and some high substitution level for making things simple). Those 
computations define or are defined by complex set of counterfactuals, 
and UDA shows that physics emerge or should emerge (with comp) from 
their structure. It is plausible because quantum logic can already be 
seen as a logic of counterfactuals. How to get them, and what the 
results will say for RITSIAR ?

Let me give you all the person point of views (pov), that is the 
complete science and theology of a simple lobian machine like PA 
(Peano Arithmetic). It is a fact that if M1 and M2 are lobian machine, 
and if M2 has stronger provability abilities than M1, then M2 can prove 
both the science and the theology of M1. But NO lobian machine can 
prove its own theology without becoming inconsistent, they can only 
abductively infer their own theology:

0-person pov = arithmetical truth. This can be shown ineffable or non 
definable by the machine (Tarski theorem). In the arithmetical 
interpretation of Plotinus' TOE, it corresponds to the ONE. It is the 
big unameable entity at the origin of all forms of existence.

3-person pov = arithmetical provability. It is the self-referential 
godelian provability predicate. The fundamental thing here is that the 
incompleteness phenomenon splits it into two parts, each of which are 
captured by a modal logic: G and G* respectively. G captures what the 
machine can prove about herself, and G* captures in addition what is 
true about the machine but unprovable by the machine (like 
self-consistency for example). G axiomatizes the self-referentially 
correct science of the machine, and G* minus G axiomatizes the 
correct theology that the machine can infer without proving (its 
hope-space if you want).
In the arithmetical interpretation of Plotinus' TOE, it corresponds 
to the INTELLECT. Terrestrial or discursive = G, divine = G*.
Please note that G and G* capture self-referentially correct *3-person* 
statements, like someone talking about his own brain with his doctor. 
It is I with I = my 3-description of my body. It is not the I 
with I = my soul, or my experiences ...

The 1-person point of view. I identify him/it/her with the 
incorrigible knower. By Godel's second incompleteness theorem, no 
correct machine can prove its own incorrigibility. But that fact makes 
it possible to define the knower by making the explicit conjunction of 
truth and provability, for example by defining a new modal connector 
like Kp = Bp  p. This is what actually Theaetetus has proposed to 
Socrates when Socrates asked him to define 

Re: Zuse Symposium: Is the universe a computer? Berlin Nov 6-7

2006-11-03 Thread John M

Marc,

I do not argue with 'your half' of the 'answer' you gave to the conference 
announcement of Jürgen Schm , I just ask for the 'other part': what should 
we call a computer?

'Anything' doing Comp? (meaning: whatever is doing it)?

Will the conference be limited to that technically embryonic gadget - maybe 
even on a  binary bases - we use with that limited software-input in 2006? a 
Turing machine?

John M

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Sent: Thursday, November 02, 2006 10:09 PM
Subject: Re: Zuse Symposium: Is the universe a computer? Berlin Nov 6-7



 Ah the famous Juergen Schmidhuber! :)

 Is the universe a computer.  Well, if you define 'universe' to mean
 'everything which exists' and you're a mathematical platonist and grant
 reality to infinite sets and uncomputables, the answer must be NO,
 since if uncomputable numbers are objectively real (strong platonism)
 they are 'things' and therefore 'part of the universe' which are by
 definition not computable.

 But if by 'universe' you just mean 'physical reality' or 'discrete
 mathematics' or you refuse to grant platonic reality to uncomputables
 or infinite sets (anti-platonism or weaker platonism) then the answer
 could be YES, the universe is a computer.

 Cheers!




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Re: Zuse Symposium: Is the universe a computer? Berlin Nov 6-7

2006-11-03 Thread Saibal Mitra

uncompoutable numbers, non countable sets etc. don't exist in first 
order logic, see here:

http://www.earlham.edu/~peters/courses/logsys/low-skol.htm


[EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED]:


 Ah the famous Juergen Schmidhuber! :)

 Is the universe a computer.  Well, if you define 'universe' to mean
 'everything which exists' and you're a mathematical platonist and grant
 reality to infinite sets and uncomputables, the answer must be NO,
 since if uncomputable numbers are objectively real (strong platonism)
 they are 'things' and therefore 'part of the universe' which are by
 definition not computable.

 But if by 'universe' you just mean 'physical reality' or 'discrete
 mathematics' or you refuse to grant platonic reality to uncomputables
 or infinite sets (anti-platonism or weaker platonism) then the answer
 could be YES, the universe is a computer.

 Cheers!


 




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Re: Zuse Symposium: Is the universe a computer? Berlin Nov 6-7

2006-11-03 Thread Bruno Marchal

It is not a question of existence but of definability.
For example you can define and prove (by Cantor diagonalization) the 
existence of uncountable sets in ZF which is a first order theory of 
sets.
Now uncountability is not an absolute notion (that is the 
Lowenheim-Skolem lesson).
Careful: uncomputability is absolute.

Bruno


Le 03-nov.-06, à 13:43, Saibal Mitra a écrit :

 uncompoutable numbers, non countable sets etc. don't exist in first
 order logic, see here:

 http://www.earlham.edu/~peters/courses/logsys/low-skol.htm


 [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED]:


 Ah the famous Juergen Schmidhuber! :)

 Is the universe a computer.  Well, if you define 'universe' to mean
 'everything which exists' and you're a mathematical platonist and 
 grant
 reality to infinite sets and uncomputables, the answer must be NO,
 since if uncomputable numbers are objectively real (strong platonism)
 they are 'things' and therefore 'part of the universe' which are by
 definition not computable.

 But if by 'universe' you just mean 'physical reality' or 'discrete
 mathematics' or you refuse to grant platonic reality to uncomputables
 or infinite sets (anti-platonism or weaker platonism) then the answer
 could be YES, the universe is a computer.
http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: RITSIAR (was Numbers, Machine and Father Ted)

2006-11-03 Thread 1Z


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 Le 02-nov.-06, à 17:34, David Nyman a écrit :


 
 
  Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
  I don't understand really what you mean by AUDA is not RITSIAR. AUDA
  is just the lobian interview, or if you prefer the complete
  mathematical formalization of the UDA reasoning. In some sense you can
  interpret it as the eventual elimination of the yes doctor
  hypothesis
  in the UDA argument (but here I do simplify a little bit).
 
  Yes, sorry, perhaps I should have said 'if number is not RITSIAR, is
  anything?' The intention behind the question is to find out how and
  where you would apply RITSIAR in your schema - if at all - because
  Peter has been willing to do this but you haven't. I just want to know
  why.




 I recall RITSIAR = Real In The Same Sense That I Am Real (introduced by
 Peter).

 Now, the notion of existence is very difficult, and the notion of
 personal existence is still more difficult, and was the object of the
 debate.

 Take the expression I am real. Does it mean I am real and this is
 something I cannot doubt about, in which case I refer to the first
 person, or is it  my physical body is real, in which case it refers
 to a third person description of I based on some theory (for example
 physics, or comp, etc.).


We don't *have* to assume that there is a gulf between the first
personal
and third personal.

 So RITSIAR is an highly ambiguous which presuppose many points we were
 arguing about.

 Let me try shortly to make it less ambiguous in the frame of the AUDA.
 Now I cannot be 100% rigorous without being long and boring, so I ask
 you some indulgence, and I am just trying to convey the idea.

 As you know I am realist or platonist about numbers and their
 arithmetical relations. For example I believe in theorem like all
 numbers can be written as a sum of four square (Lagrange theorem). I
 take such a truth as being completely independent of me, you, time,
 place. I take such truth as being primitive and beyond time and space,
 a-physical if you want.
 Now I also believe in 1-persons, or souls, etc. I am not a solipsist,
 and I really believe in my own current experience, but also in yours
 even if I am currently feeling them differently.

 I don't believe at all that a first person experience is a number, nor
 do I believe any first person can believe to be a number. Still, I
 assume comp, so there must be a relation between 1-person experience
 and numbers. Indeed persons can manifest themselves relatively to me
 when they are related to some computations (brain activity with comp
 and some high substitution level for making things simple). Those
 computations define or are defined by complex set of counterfactuals,
 and UDA shows that physics emerge or should emerge (with comp) from
 their structure. It is plausible because quantum logic can already be
 seen as a logic of counterfactuals. How to get them, and what the
 results will say for RITSIAR ?

 Let me give you all the person point of views (pov), that is the
 complete science and theology of a simple lobian machine like PA
 (Peano Arithmetic). It is a fact that if M1 and M2 are lobian machine,
 and if M2 has stronger provability abilities than M1, then M2 can prove
 both the science and the theology of M1. But NO lobian machine can
 prove its own theology without becoming inconsistent, they can only
 abductively infer their own theology:

 0-person pov = arithmetical truth. This can be shown ineffable or non
 definable by the machine (Tarski theorem). In the arithmetical
 interpretation of Plotinus' TOE, it corresponds to the ONE. It is the
 big unameable entity at the origin of all forms of existence.

Don't entities have to exist?

 3-person pov = arithmetical provability. It is the self-referential
 godelian provability predicate. The fundamental thing here is that the
 incompleteness phenomenon splits it into two parts, each of which are
 captured by a modal logic: G and G* respectively. G captures what the
 machine can prove about herself, and G* captures in addition what is
 true about the machine but unprovable by the machine (like
 self-consistency for example). G axiomatizes the self-referentially
 correct science of the machine, and G* minus G axiomatizes the
 correct theology that the machine can infer without proving (its
 hope-space if you want).
 In the arithmetical interpretation of Plotinus' TOE, it corresponds
 to the INTELLECT. Terrestrial or discursive = G, divine = G*.
 Please note that G and G* capture self-referentially correct *3-person*
 statements, like someone talking about his own brain with his doctor.
 It is I with I = my 3-description of my body. It is not the I
 with I = my soul, or my experiences ...

 The 1-person point of view. I identify him/it/her with the
 incorrigible knower. By Godel's second incompleteness theorem, no
 correct machine can prove its own incorrigibility. But that fact makes
 it possible to define the knower by making the explicit conjunction of
 

Re: Zuse Symposium: Is the universe a computer? Berlin Nov 6-7

2006-11-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


In conscience et mécanisme I use Lowenheim Skolem theorem to explain 
why the first person of PA  see uncountable things despite the fact 
that from the 0 person pov and the 3 person pov there is only countably 
many things (for PA).
I explain it through a comics. See the drawings the page deux-272, 
273, 275 in the volume deux (section: Des lois mécanistes de 
l'esprit). It explains how a machine can eventually infer the existence 
of other machine/individual). Here:
http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/bxlthesis/Volume2CC/2%20%203.pdf

Note also that the word model (in 
http://www.earlham.edu/~peters/courses/logsys/low-skol.htm ) refers to 
a technical notion which is the opposite of a theory. A model is a 
mathematical reality or structure capable of satisfying (making true) 
the theorem of a theory. Like a concrete group (like the real R with 
multiplication) satisfy the formal axioms of some abstract group 
theory. (Physicists uses model and theory interchangeably, and this 
makes sometimes interdisciplinary discussion difficult).

ZF can prove the existence of non countable sets, and still be 
satisfied by a countable model. This means that all sets in the model 
are countable so there is a bijection between each infinite set living 
in the model and the set N of natural numbers. What is happening? just 
that the bijection itself does not live in the model, so that the 
inhabitants of the model cannot see the bijection, and this shows 
that  uncountability is not absolute. It just means that from where I 
am I cannot enumerate the set. But, contrariwise,  uncomputability is 
absolute for those enough rich theories.

Here I am close to a possible answer of a question by Stathis (why 
comp?), and the answer is that with comp you have robust (absolute, 
independent of machine, language, etc.) notion of everything. Comp has 
a Church thesis. few notion of math have such facility. Tegmark's 
whole math, for example, is highly ambiguous.

Thanks to Saibal for Peter Suber web page on Skolem (interesting).


Bruno


Le 03-nov.-06, à 13:50, Bruno Marchal a écrit :


 It is not a question of existence but of definability.
 For example you can define and prove (by Cantor diagonalization) the
 existence of uncountable sets in ZF which is a first order theory of
 sets.
 Now uncountability is not an absolute notion (that is the
 Lowenheim-Skolem lesson).
 Careful: uncomputability is absolute.

 Bruno


 Le 03-nov.-06, à 13:43, Saibal Mitra a écrit :

 uncompoutable numbers, non countable sets etc. don't exist in first
 order logic, see here:

 http://www.earlham.edu/~peters/courses/logsys/low-skol.htm


 [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED]:


 Ah the famous Juergen Schmidhuber! :)

 Is the universe a computer.  Well, if you define 'universe' to mean
 'everything which exists' and you're a mathematical platonist and
 grant
 reality to infinite sets and uncomputables, the answer must be NO,
 since if uncomputable numbers are objectively real (strong platonism)
 they are 'things' and therefore 'part of the universe' which are by
 definition not computable.

 But if by 'universe' you just mean 'physical reality' or 'discrete
 mathematics' or you refuse to grant platonic reality to uncomputables
 or infinite sets (anti-platonism or weaker platonism) then the answer
 could be YES, the universe is a computer.
 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


 


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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