Re: The seven step-Mathematical preliminaries

2009-06-13 Thread Quentin Anciaux

2009/6/13 Torgny Tholerus tor...@dsv.su.se:

 Jesse Mazer skrev:

  Date: Fri, 12 Jun 2009 18:40:14 +0200
  From: tor...@dsv.su.se
  To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
  Subject: Re: The seven step-Mathematical preliminaries
 
  It is, as I said above, for me and all other humans to understand what
  you are talking about. It is also for to be able to decide what
  deductions or conclusions or proofs that are legal or illegal.

 Well, most humans who think about mathematics can understand
 rule-based definitions like 0 is a whole number, and N is a whole
 number if it's equal to some other whole number plus one--you seem to
 be the lone exception.

 As for being able to decide what deductions or conclusions or proofs
 that are legal or illegal, how exactly would writing out all the
 members of the universe solve that? For example, I actually write
 out all the numbers from 0 to 1,038,712 and say that they are members
 of the universe I want to talk about. But if I write out some axioms
 used to prove various propositions about these numbers, they are still
 going to be in the form of general *rules* with abstract variables
 like x and y (where these variables stand for arbitrary numbers in the
 set), no? Or do you also insist that instead of writing axioms and
 making deductions, we also spell out in advance every proposition that
 shall be deemed true? In that case there is no room at all for
 mathematicians to make deductions or write proofs, all of math
 would just consist of looking at the pre-established list of true
 propositions and checking if the proposition in question is on there.

 What do you think about the following deduction?  Is it legal or illegal?
 ---
 Define the set A of all sets as:

 For all x holds that x belongs to A if and only if x is a set.

 This is an general rule saying that for some particular symbol-string x
 you can always tell if x belongs to A or not.  Most humans who think
 about mathematics can understand this rule-based definition.  This rule
 holds for all and every object, without exceptions.

 So this rule also holds for A itself.  We can always substitute A for
 x.  Then we will get:

 A belongs to A if and only if A is a set.

 And we know that A is a set.  So from this we can deduce:

 A beongs to A.
 ---
 Quentin, what do you think?  Is this deduction legal or illegal?

It depends if you allow a set to be part of itselft or not.

If you accept, that a set can be part of itself, it makes your
deduction legal regarding the rules. If you don't then the statement
is illegal regarding the rules (it violates the rule saying that a set
can't contains itself, which means that A in this system is not a set
thus all the reasoning in *that system* is false.

Choosing one rule or the other tells nothing about the rule itself
unless you can find a contradiction by choosing one or the other.

Regards,
Quentin

But I can't see why a set as I understand it cannot be part of
itself... {1,2,3} is included in {1,2,3} is true, what is the exact
problem with that statement ? (written differently all elements of the
set A are elements of the set B === A is included in B, here as A and
B are the same A is included in A.

 --
 Torgny Tholerus

 




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Re: The seven step-Mathematical preliminaries

2009-06-13 Thread Torgny Tholerus

Quentin Anciaux skrev:
 2009/6/13 Torgny Tholerus tor...@dsv.su.se:
   
 What do you think about the following deduction?  Is it legal or illegal?
 ---
 Define the set A of all sets as:

 For all x holds that x belongs to A if and only if x is a set.

 This is an general rule saying that for some particular symbol-string x
 you can always tell if x belongs to A or not.  Most humans who think
 about mathematics can understand this rule-based definition.  This rule
 holds for all and every object, without exceptions.

 So this rule also holds for A itself.  We can always substitute A for
 x.  Then we will get:

 A belongs to A if and only if A is a set.

 And we know that A is a set.  So from this we can deduce:

 A beongs to A.
 ---
 Quentin, what do you think?  Is this deduction legal or illegal?
 

 It depends if you allow a set to be part of itselft or not.

 If you accept, that a set can be part of itself, it makes your
 deduction legal regarding the rules.

OK, if we accept that a set can be part of itself, what do you think 
about the following deduction? Is it legal or illegal?

---
Define the set B of all sets that do not belong to itself as:

For all x holds that x belongs to B if and only if x does not belong to x.

This is an general rule saying that for some particular symbol-string x 
you can always tell if x belongs to B or not.  Most humans who think 
about mathematics can understand this rule-based definition.  This rule 
holds for all and every object, without exceptions.

So this rule also holds for B itself.  We can always substitute B for 
x.  Then we will get:

B belongs to B if and only if B does not belong to B.
---
Quentin, what do you think?  Is this deduction legal or illegal?


-- 
Torgny Tholerus

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Re: The seven step-Mathematical preliminaries

2009-06-13 Thread Quentin Anciaux

Well it is illegal regarding the rules meaning with these rules set B
does not exist as defined.


2009/6/13 Torgny Tholerus tor...@dsv.su.se:

 Quentin Anciaux skrev:
 2009/6/13 Torgny Tholerus tor...@dsv.su.se:

 What do you think about the following deduction?  Is it legal or illegal?
 ---
 Define the set A of all sets as:

 For all x holds that x belongs to A if and only if x is a set.

 This is an general rule saying that for some particular symbol-string x
 you can always tell if x belongs to A or not.  Most humans who think
 about mathematics can understand this rule-based definition.  This rule
 holds for all and every object, without exceptions.

 So this rule also holds for A itself.  We can always substitute A for
 x.  Then we will get:

 A belongs to A if and only if A is a set.

 And we know that A is a set.  So from this we can deduce:

 A beongs to A.
 ---
 Quentin, what do you think?  Is this deduction legal or illegal?


 It depends if you allow a set to be part of itselft or not.

 If you accept, that a set can be part of itself, it makes your
 deduction legal regarding the rules.

 OK, if we accept that a set can be part of itself, what do you think
 about the following deduction? Is it legal or illegal?

 ---
 Define the set B of all sets that do not belong to itself as:

 For all x holds that x belongs to B if and only if x does not belong to x.

 This is an general rule saying that for some particular symbol-string x
 you can always tell if x belongs to B or not.  Most humans who think
 about mathematics can understand this rule-based definition.  This rule
 holds for all and every object, without exceptions.

 So this rule also holds for B itself.  We can always substitute B for
 x.  Then we will get:

 B belongs to B if and only if B does not belong to B.
 ---
 Quentin, what do you think?  Is this deduction legal or illegal?


 --
 Torgny Tholerus

 




-- 
All those moments will be lost in time, like tears in rain.

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RE: The seven step-Mathematical preliminaries

2009-06-13 Thread Jesse Mazer



 Date: Sat, 13 Jun 2009 11:05:22 +0200
 From: tor...@dsv.su.se
 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Subject: Re: The seven step-Mathematical preliminaries
 
 
 Jesse Mazer skrev:
 
   Date: Fri, 12 Jun 2009 18:40:14 +0200
   From: tor...@dsv.su.se
   To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
   Subject: Re: The seven step-Mathematical preliminaries
  
   It is, as I said above, for me and all other humans to understand what
   you are talking about. It is also for to be able to decide what
   deductions or conclusions or proofs that are legal or illegal.
 
  Well, most humans who think about mathematics can understand 
  rule-based definitions like 0 is a whole number, and N is a whole 
  number if it's equal to some other whole number plus one--you seem to 
  be the lone exception.
 
  As for being able to decide what deductions or conclusions or proofs 
  that are legal or illegal, how exactly would writing out all the 
  members of the universe solve that? For example, I actually write 
  out all the numbers from 0 to 1,038,712 and say that they are members 
  of the universe I want to talk about. But if I write out some axioms 
  used to prove various propositions about these numbers, they are still 
  going to be in the form of general *rules* with abstract variables 
  like x and y (where these variables stand for arbitrary numbers in the 
  set), no? Or do you also insist that instead of writing axioms and 
  making deductions, we also spell out in advance every proposition that 
  shall be deemed true? In that case there is no room at all for 
  mathematicians to make deductions or write proofs, all of math 
  would just consist of looking at the pre-established list of true 
  propositions and checking if the proposition in question is on there.
 
 What do you think about the following deduction?  Is it legal or illegal?
 ---
 Define the set A of all sets as:
 
 For all x holds that x belongs to A if and only if x is a set.

It's well known that if you allow sets to contain themselves, and allow 
arbitrary rules for what a given set can contain, then you can get 
contradictions like Russell's paradox (the set of all sets which do not contain 
themselves). But what relevance does this have to arithmetic? Are you afraid 
the basic Peano axioms might lead to two propositions which can be derived in 
finite time from the axioms but which are mutually contradictory? If so I don't 
see how allowing only a finite collection of numbers actually helps--like I 
said in an earlier post, the number of propositions that can be proved about a 
finite set of numbers can still be infinite. I suppose it might be possible to 
make it finite by disallowing propositions which are created merely by 
connecting other propositions with the AND or OR logical operators, but it's 
still the case that if your largest whole number BIGGEST is supposed to be at 
least as large as some numbers humans have already conceived--say, as large as 
10^100--then there is no way we could actually write out all possible 
propositions about these numbers that follow from some Peano-like axiom system 
to check manually that no two propositions contradicted each other (do you want 
to try to calculate 10^100 + A and A + 10^100 for every possible value of A 
smaller than 10^100 to verify explicitly that they are equal in every case?) 
So, it seems that unless you want to make your universe of numbers *very* 
small, you have to rely on some sort of mental model of arithmetic to be 
confident that you won't get contradictions from the axioms you start from, 
just like how people are confident in the non-contradictoriness of the Peano 
axioms based on their mental model of counting discrete objects like marbles 
(see my comments in the last paragraph of the post at 
http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.com/msg16564.html ).

Jesse
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Re: Consciousness is information?

2009-06-13 Thread David Nyman

On Apr 24, 4:39 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Any content of consciousness can be an illusion. Consciousness itself
 cannot, because without consciousness there is no more illusion at all.

- just catching up with the thread, but I feel compelled to comment
that this is beautifully and clearly put.  Why does this insight
escape so many whose grasp of logic in other respects seems quite
adequate?  The word 'illusion' is often brandished in a scarily
'eliminative' way, but those who do so seem quite
'unconscious' (ironically) that the subtle knife they wield for this
excision is precisely that which they seek to excise!

David

 On 24 Apr 2009, at 06:14, Kelly wrote:



  On Apr 22, 12:24 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  So for that to be a plausible scenario we have to
  say that a person at a particular instant in time can be fully
  described by some set of data.

  Not fully. I agree with Brent that you need an interpreter to make
  that person manifest herself in front of you. A bit like a CD, you
  will need a player to get the music.

  It seems to me that consciousness is the self-interpretion of
  information.  David Chalmers has a good line:  Experience is
  information from the inside; physics is information from the outside.

 First person experience and third person experiment. Glad to hear  
 Chalmers accept this at last.
 In UDA, inside/outside are perfectly well defined in a pure third  
 person way: inside (first person) = memories annihilated and  
 reconstructed in classical teleportation, outside = the view outside  
 the teleporter. In AUDA I use the old classical definition by Plato in  
 the Theaetetus.



  I still don't see what an interpreter adds, except to satisfy the
  intuition that something is happening that produces
  consciousness.  Which I think is an attempt to reintroduce time.

 I don't think so. The only time needed is the discrete order on the  
 natural numbers. An interpreter is needed to play the role of the  
 person who gives some content to the information handled through his  
 local brain.   (For this I need also addition and multiplication).



  But I don't see any advantage of this view over the idea that
  conscious states just exist as a type of platonic form (as Brent
  mentioned earlier).

 The advantage is that we have the tools to derive physics in a way  
 which is enough precise for testing the comp hypothesis. Physics has  
 became a branch of computer's psychology or theology.

  At any given instant that I'm awake, I'm
  conscious of SOMETHING.

 To predict something, the difficulty is to relate that consciousness  
 to its computational histories. Physics is given by a measure of  
 probability on those comp histories.

  And I'm conscious of it by virtue of my
  mental state at that instant.  In the materialist view, my mental
  state is just the state of the particles of my brain at that
  instant.

 Which cannot be maintained with the comp hyp. Your consciousness is an  
 abstract type related to all computations going through your current  
 state.



  But I say that what this really means is that my mental state is just
  the information represented by the particles of my brain at that
  instant.  And that if you transfer that information to a computer and
  run a simulation that updates that information appropriately, my
  consciousness will continue in that computer simulation, regardless of
  the hardware (digital computer, mechanical computer, massively
  parallel or single processor, etc) or algorithmic details of that
  computer simulation.

 OK. But it is a very special form of information. Consciousness is  
 really the qualia associated to your belief in some reality. It is a  
 bet on self-consistency: it speed up your reaction time relatively to  
 your most probable histories.



  But, what is information?  I think it has nothing to do with physical
  storage or instantiation.  I think it has an existence seperate from
  that.  A platonic existence.  And since the information that
  represents my brain exists platonically, then the information for
  every possible brain (including variations of my brain) should also
  exist platonically.

 You make the same error than those who confuse a universal dovetailer  
 with a counting algorithm or the babel library. The sequence:

 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ... , or 0 1 10 11 100 101 110 111 go through all  
 description of all information, but it lacks the infinitely subtle  
 redundancy contained in the space of all computations (the universal  
 dovetaling). You work in N, succ, you lack addition and  
 multiplication, needed for having a notion of interpreter or universal  
 machine, the key entity capable of giving content to its information  
 structure. This is needed to have a coherent internal interpretation  
 of computerland.



  Conscious experience is more the content, or the interpretation of
  that information, made by a person or by a universal