Re: 1p 3p comparison

2012-02-11 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Feb 2012, at 03:01, Craig Weinberg wrote:


Dennett's Comp:
Human 1p = 3p(3p(3p)) -


What do you mean precisely by np(np) n = 1 or 3. ?



Subjectivity is an illusion


And I guess we agree that this is total nonsense.




Machine 1p = 3p(3p(3p)) - Subjectivity is not considered formally

My view:
Human 1p = (1p(1p(1p))) - Subjectivity a fundamental sense modality
which is qualitatively enriched in humans through multiple organic
nestings.


Even infinite organic nestings, which might not even make sense.




Machine 1p = (3p(3p(1p))) - Machine subjectivity is limited to
hardware level sense modalities, which can be used to imitate human 3p
quantitatively but cannot be enriched qualitatively to human 1p.


Which seems ad hoc for making machine non conscious.
Again we see here that you accept that your position entails the  
existence of philosophical zombies, that is: the existence of  
unconscious machines perfectly imitating humans in *all* circumstances.






Bruno:
Machine or human 1p = (1p(f(x)) - Subjectivity arises as a result of
the 1p set of functional consequences of specific arithmetic truths,
which (I think) are neither object, subject, or sense, but Platonic
universal numbers.

Is that close?


I just say that IF we are machine, then some tiny part of arithmetical  
truth is ontologically enough, to derive matter and consciousness, and  
is necessary (up to recursive equivalence). Subjectivity comes from  
self-reference + Truth.


Truth about a weaker LUM is definable by a stronger LUM, but no LUM  
can defined its own global notion of truth (which will play the role  
of the first greek God, like Plotinus ONE). Weak and String are  
defined in term of the set of provable (by the entity in question)  
arithmetical (or equivalent) propositions.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Information: a basic physical quantity or rather emergence/supervenience phenomenon

2012-02-11 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

On 11.02.2012 04:27 Russell Standish said the following:

On Fri, Feb 10, 2012 at 09:39:50PM +0100, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


Let me ask you the same question that I have recently asked Brent.
Could you please tell me, the thermodynamic entropy of what is
discussed in Jason's example below?

Evgenii



If you're asking what is the conversion constant between bits and
J/K, the answer is k_B log(2) / log(10).

I'm not sure what else to tell you...

Cheers



I am asking what a thermodynamic system is to be considered in this 
case. I understand that you can convert it his way, the question would 
be the thermodynamic entropy of what you receive this way.


Evgenii

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Re: COMP theology (was: Ontological Problems of COMP)

2012-02-11 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Feb 2012, at 07:32, Stephen P. King wrote:


Hi ACW,

Thank you for the time and effort to write this up!!!

On 2/9/2012 3:40 PM, acw wrote:


Bruno has always said that COMP is a matter of theology (or  
religion), that is, the provably unprovable, and I agree with this.  
However, let's try and see why that is and why someone would take  
COMP as an assumption:


- The main assumption of COMP is that you admit, at some level, a  
digital substitution, and the stronger assumption that if you were  
to implement/run such a Turing-emulable program, it would be  
conscious and you would have a continuation in it. Isn't that a  
strong theological assumption?

[SPK]
Yes, but it is the substitution of one configuration of  
stuff with another such that the functionality (that allows for  
the implementation/running of the Turing-emulable (Turing  
equivalence!)) program to remain invariant. One thing interesting to  
point out about this is that this substitution can be the  
replacement of completely different kinds of stuff, like carbon  
based stuff with silicon based stuff and does not require a  
continuous physical process of transformation in the sense of  
smoothly morphism the carbon stuff into silicon stuff at some  
primitive level. B/c of this it may seem to bypass the usual  
restrictions of physical laws, but does it really?
What exactly is this physical stuff anyway? If we take a hint  
from the latest ideas in theoretical physics it seems that the  
stuff of the material world is more about properties that remain  
invariant under sets of symmetry transformations and less and less  
about anything like primitive substances. So in a sense, the  
physical world might be considered to be a wide assortment of  
bundles of invariants therefore it seems to me that to test COMP we  
need to see if those symmetry groups and invariants can be derived  
from some proposed underlying logical structure. This is what I am  
trying to do. I am really not arguing against COMP, I am arguing  
that COMP is incomplete as a theory as it does not yet show how the  
appearance of space, time and conservation laws emerges in a way  
that is invariant and not primitive.


So you miss the UDA point. The UDA point is that if COMP is true, it  
has to be complete as a theory, independently of the fact that the  
shorter time to derive physics might be 10^1000 millenia. Comp  
explains, by the UDA, that whatever you add to comp, or to RA, or to  
the UD, cannot play any role in consciousness, including the feeling  
that the worlds obeys some role. So if comp is correct the las of  
physics have to be derived from arithmetic alone. Then AUDA makes a  
non trivial part of the derivation. We have already the symmetry of  
the core bottom physics, the quantum indeterminacy, non locality, non  
cloning. But this is just for illustrating the consistency: the UDA  
conclusion is that no matter what, the appearance of matter cannot use  
any supplementary assumption to comp and/or arithmetic. You can sum up  
the UD by comp is not completable. It is the Bell-von Neuman answer  
to Einstein, in your analogy below. Arithmetic is made conceptually  
complete. Whatever you add to it will prevent the comp solution of the  
mind-body problem, a bit like evruthing you add to the SWE will  
reintroduce the measurement problem in quantum physics. Comp and  
arithmetic are conceptually complete, but of epistemologically highly  
incomplete and uncompletable.


Also, once you agree that stuff is not primitive, you have to define  
it from your primitive terms, which I don't see possible given that  
your primitive is the word existence which is not defined, nor even  
a theory.






I guess I have the temerity to play Einstein against Bruno's Bohr. :-)


See just above.


OTOH, I am not arguing for any kind of return to naive realism or  
that the physical world is the totality of existence. I do know that  
I am just a curious amateur, so I welcome any critique that might  
help me learn.


Comp like QM does not admit supplementary axioms, or variables, to  
reinstall a physical realism.








I think it is, but at the same time, it has solid consequences and  
a belief in it can be justified for a number of reasons:
 a) Fading qualia thought experiment, which shows that  
consciousness is utterly fickle if it doesn't follow a principle of  
functional / organizational invariance. Most of our sense data  
tends to point that such a principle makes sense. Avoiding it means  
consciousness does not correspond to brain states and p. zombies.


Certainly! We need a precise explanation for psycho-physical  
parallelism.


But there is no psycho-physical parallelism. The metaphysical physical  
*is* an illusion, naïve or not. The physical itself is arithmetical  
truth see from the observable point of view (suggested to be handled  
by the logics of observation Bp  Dt ( p), at the G and G* levels).





My tentative 

Re: 1p 3p comparison

2012-02-11 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Feb 11, 4:03 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 11 Feb 2012, at 03:01, Craig Weinberg wrote:

  Dennett's Comp:
  Human 1p = 3p(3p(3p)) -

 What do you mean precisely by np(np) n = 1 or 3. ?

I'm using 1p or 3p as names only, first person direct phenomenology or
third person objective mechanism. The parenthesis is hierarchical/
holarchical nesting or you could say multiplication. Dennett thinks
that we know that there are only mechanical processes controlling each
other.


  Subjectivity is an illusion

 And I guess we agree that this is total nonsense.

Yes. But only because we have first hand experience ourselves and
cannot doubt it. If we could doubt it then there would be no reason to
imagine that there could be such a thing as subjectivity.


  Machine 1p = 3p(3p(3p)) - Subjectivity is not considered formally

  My view:
  Human 1p = (1p(1p(1p))) - Subjectivity a fundamental sense modality
  which is qualitatively enriched in humans through multiple organic
  nestings.

 Even infinite organic nestings, which might not even make sense.

No, only seven or so nestings: Physical  Chemical  Biological 
Zoological  Neurological  Anthropological  Individual


  Machine 1p = (3p(3p(1p))) - Machine subjectivity is limited to
  hardware level sense modalities, which can be used to imitate human 3p
  quantitatively but cannot be enriched qualitatively to human 1p.

 Which seems ad hoc for making machine non conscious.
 Again we see here that you accept that your position entails the
 existence of philosophical zombies,

I call them puppets. Zombies are assumed to have absent qualia,
puppets are understood not to have any qualia in the first place.

 that is: the existence of
 unconscious machines perfectly imitating humans in *all* circumstances.

Not perfectly imitating, no. That's what that whole business of
substitution being indexical is about. I propose more of a formula of
substitution, like in pharmacological toxicity where LD50 represents a
lethal dose in 50% of animal test population. Let's call it TD (Turing
Discovery). What you are talking about is a hypothetical puppet with a
TD00 value - it fails the Turing Test for 0% of test participants
(even itself - since if it didn't then an identical program could be
used to detect the puppet strings).

The first consideration with this is that it would need to be extended
to have a duration value because any puppet might not reveal it's
strings in a short conversation. A TD00 program might decay to TD75 in
an hour, and TD99 in two hours, so there could be a function plotted
there. It may not be a simple arithmetic rise over time, participants
may change their mind back and forth (and I think that they might)
over time. There could be patterns in that too, where our expectations
wax and wane with some kind of regularity for some people and not for
others. It's not just time duration though, we would need to factor in
the quantity and quality of data. How hard the questions are and how
many of them. Answering long questions too fast would be a dead
giveaway. A sparse conversation may have giveaways too - how they
express impatience with long delays, whether they bring up parts of
the conversation during the gaps, all kinds of subtle clues in the
semantic character of what the program focuses on.

There are so many variables that it may not even be useful to try to
model it. The TD will undoubtedly be affected by how the participants
have been prepared, whether they have experience with AI or have seen
documentaries about it just before or whether they have been instead
prepared with sentimental stories or crime dramas which sensitize them
or desensitize them to certain attitudes and behavior. If the program
speaks in LOL INTERWEBZ slang, or general informal terms vs precise
scientific terms that would have an effect as well.

Whether or not a true TD00 - universal human puppet could be possible
in theory or practice is not what I'm speculating on. If I were to
speculate, I would say that no, it is not possible. I don't think that
even a real human could be TD00 to all other humans for all times and
situations. That's because it's a continuum of 'seems like' rather
than a condition which 'simply is' - it's indexical to subject and
circumstance.

All of this in no way means that the TD level implies actual
simulation of subjectivity. TD is only a measure of imitation success.
As I have said, the only way I can think of to come close to knowing
whether a given imitation is a simulation is to walk your brain
function over to the program, one hemisphere at a time, and then walk
it back after a few hours or days. Short of that, we can either be
generous with our projection and imagine that puppets, computers, and
programs are potential human beings given the right degree of
sophistication, or we can be more conservative and limit our scope so
that we only give other humans, animals, or living organisms the
benefit of the doubt. I think the more 

Re: The free will function

2012-02-11 Thread 1Z


On Feb 11, 1:24 am, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 I'm not trying to convince anyone that I'm brilliant, I'm explaining
 why the popular ideas and conventional wisdom of the moment are
 misguided.


You need to explain, non-question-beggingly..

 What a computer does is arithmetic to us, but to the computer it's
 billions of separate electronic or mechanical events that signify
 nothing to it.

 ...why that is a problem
with the computer being a computer and not with the computer being
too dumb.

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Re: COMP theology

2012-02-11 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/11/2012 6:29 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 11 Feb 2012, at 07:32, Stephen P. King wrote:


Hi ACW,

Thank you for the time and effort to write this up!!!

On 2/9/2012 3:40 PM, acw wrote:
Bruno has always said that COMP is a matter of theology (or 
religion), that is, the provably unprovable, and I agree with this. 
However, let's try and see why that is and why someone would take 
COMP as an assumption:


- The main assumption of COMP is that you admit, at some level, a 
digital substitution, and the stronger assumption that if you were 
to implement/run such a Turing-emulable program, it would be 
conscious and you would have a continuation in it. Isn't that a 
strong theological assumption?

[SPK]
Yes, but it is the substitution of one configuration of stuff 
with another such that the functionality (that allows for the 
implementation/running of the Turing-emulable (Turing equivalence!)) 
program to remain invariant. One thing interesting to point out about 
this is that this substitution can be the replacement of completely 
different kinds of stuff, like carbon based stuff with silicon based 
stuff and does not require a continuous physical process of 
transformation in the sense of smoothly morphism the carbon stuff 
into silicon stuff at some primitive level. B/c of this it may seem 
to bypass the usual restrictions of physical laws, but does it really?
What exactly is this physical stuff anyway? If we take a hint 
from the latest ideas in theoretical physics it seems that the 
stuff of the material world is more about properties that remain 
invariant under sets of symmetry transformations and less and less 
about anything like primitive substances. So in a sense, the 
physical world might be considered to be a wide assortment of bundles 
of invariants therefore it seems to me that to test COMP we need to 
see if those symmetry groups and invariants can be derived from some 
proposed underlying logical structure. This is what I am trying to 
do. I am really not arguing against COMP, I am arguing that COMP is 
incomplete as a theory as it does not yet show how the appearance of 
space, time and conservation laws emerges in a way that is invariant 
and not primitive.


So you miss the UDA point. The UDA point is that if COMP is true, it 
has to be complete as a theory, independently of the fact that the 
shorter time to derive physics might be 10^1000 millenia. Comp 
explains, by the UDA, that whatever you add to comp, or to RA, or to 
the UD, cannot play any role in consciousness, including the feeling 
that the worlds obeys some role. So if comp is correct the las of 
physics have to be derived from arithmetic alone. Then AUDA makes a 
non trivial part of the derivation. We have already the symmetry of 
the core bottom physics, the quantum indeterminacy, non locality, non 
cloning. But this is just for illustrating the consistency: the UDA 
conclusion is that no matter what, the appearance of matter cannot use 
any supplementary assumption to comp and/or arithmetic. You can sum up 
the UD by comp is not completable. It is the Bell-von Neuman answer 
to Einstein, in your analogy below. Arithmetic is made conceptually 
complete. Whatever you add to it will prevent the comp solution of the 
mind-body problem, a bit like evruthing you add to the SWE will 
reintroduce the measurement problem in quantum physics. Comp and 
arithmetic are conceptually complete, but of epistemologically highly 
incomplete and uncompletable.


Also, once you agree that stuff is not primitive, you have to define 
it from your primitive terms, which I don't see possible given that 
your primitive is the word existence which is not defined, nor even 
a theory.


Hi Bruno,

You are still not addressing my questions and what I see as a 
problem. The speed issue and completeness is not just addressing from an 
internal perspective since we have to have invariance over many 
different internal perspectives and these can vary over speed and 
complexity. This is illustrated by the discussion of how stuff can 
vary while preserving the functionality. The 'theory' of existence 
follows naturally from neutral monism, you just need spend the effort to 
understand it.
Think of this another way, we have a choice between belief that 
COMP is true or COMP is false. In order to have a coherent notion of 
a bet, both COMP is True and COMP is false have to exist side by 
side as equivalently possible. If we consider that they only can have 
this side by side equivalence in the mind, then we obtain the 
situation that their truth value is dependent on the choice, but that 
would contradict COMP since built into it is the postulate that truth is 
independent of belief. We have to look at COMP from the point of view of 
many minds and not just one, but so far you have stoically resisted 
doing this. Why?




OTOH, I am not arguing for any kind of return to naive realism or 
that the physical world is the totality of 

Re: Time and Concurrency Platonia?

2012-02-11 Thread acw

On 2/10/2012 13:54, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 2/9/2012 3:40 PM, acw wrote:

[SPK]
I do not see how this deals effectively with the concurrency problem!
:-( Using the Platonia idea is a cheat as it is explicitly unphysical.

But physics by itself does not explain consciousness either (as shown
by MGA). Maybe I just don't see what the concurrency problem is.

It has no constraints of thermodynamics, no limits on speeds of signals,
no explanation as to how an Ideal Form is defined, e.g. what is the
standard of its perfection, ect. It is no different from the Realm of
God in religious mythos, so what is it doing here in our rational
considerations? Forgive me but I was raised by parents that where
Fundamentalists Believers, so please understand that I have an allergy
to ideas that remind me of the mental prison that I had to work so hard
to escape.

I'm not asking you to share all of Plato's beliefs here. It's merely a
minimal amount of magic, not unlike the magic you have to accept
by positing a 3p world. The amount is basically this: arithmetical (or
computational) sentences have truth values independent of anything
physical and consciousness/qualia may be how some such arithmetical
truth feels from the inside. Without at least some axioms, one cannot
get anywhere, you can't reduce arithmetic to only logic and so on. Why
would Platonia have to have the same constraints as our physical
realms - it need only obey to constraints of logic and math, which
usually means stuff that is contained within the Church Turing Thesis
and its implications. Speed of signals? If some theory is
inconsistent, it's only there as part of the reasoning of some other
machine. Ideal Form? How do you define an integer or the axioms that
talk about arithmetic?
Popular religious mythos tend to be troublesome because they involve
*logically impossible* properties being attributed to Gods and other
beings - things which are inconsistent. It's not like one doesn't
assume some axioms in any theory - they are there in almost any
scientific theory. Yet, unlike popular religions, you're free to
evaluate your hypotheses and use evidence and meta-reasoning to decide
which one is more likely to be true and then try to use the results of
such theories to predict how stuff will behave or bet on various things.
Of course, it's not hard to get trapped in a bad epistemology, and I
can see why you'd be extra skeptical of bad theories, however nobody
is telling you to believe a theory is true or false, instead it asks
you to work out the consequences of each theory's axioms (as well as
using meta-reasoning skills to weed down overly complex theories, if
you prefer using Occam's) and then either choose to use or not use
that particular theory depending if the results match your
observations/expectations/standards/... (if expectations are broken,
one would either have to update beliefs or theories or both).

Hi ACW,

What ever the global structure that we use to relate our ideas and
provide explanations, it makes sense that we do not ignore problems that
are inconvenient. A big problem that I have with Platonia is that it
does not address the appearance of change that we finite semi-autonomous
beings observe. The problem of time is just a corollary to this. I would
prefer to toss out any postulates that require *any* magic. Magic is
like Arsenic poison, every little bit doubles the harmful effects.
Magic is only used for things which have to either be axioms or which 
just cannot be reduced further. Arithmetic cannot be reduced further. 
What we have as subjective experience is not directly communicable, it 
is very 'magical', yet our theories must explain it somehow. We may want 
to have no axioms at all, but such theories are inconsistent as they can 
prove anything at all.



Why
do we even need a notion of 3p except as a pedagogical tool? What we
need, at least, is a stratification scheme that allows us to represent
these differences, but we need to understand that in doing this we are
sneaking in the notion of a 3p that is equivalent to some kind of agent
whose only mission is to observe differences and that is a fallacy since
we are trying to explain observers in the first place.

Unless we have some way to handle a fundamental notion of change, there
is no way to deal with questions of change and time. Please notice how
many instances we are using verbs in our considerations of COMP ideas.
Where and how does the change implicit in the verb, as like running the
UD, obtain? We cannot ignore this. I am highlighting the concurrency
problem b/c it shows how this problem cannot be ignored. The Platonic
Realm, especially the Arithmetic Realist one, is by definition fixed and
static, nothing changes in it at all! How do we get the appearance of
time from it? It is possible to show how, but the proponents of COMP
need to explain this, IMHO. It is incoherent at best to make statements
like the UD is running on the walls of Platonia. How is that even a

Re: The free will function

2012-02-11 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Feb 11, 12:01 pm, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:
 On Feb 11, 1:24 am, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

  I'm not trying to convince anyone that I'm brilliant, I'm explaining
  why the popular ideas and conventional wisdom of the moment are
  misguided.

 You need to explain, non-question-beggingly..

I have been accused of that sometimes, but I have never been guilty of
it that I have seen.


  What a computer does is arithmetic to us, but to the computer it's
  billions of separate electronic or mechanical events that signify
  nothing to it.

  ...why that is a problem
 with the computer being a computer and not with the computer being
 too dumb.

All computers are as dumb as anything could be. Any computer will run
the same loop over and over forever if you program them to do that.

Craig

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Re: COMP theology

2012-02-11 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Feb 2012, at 18:41, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 2/11/2012 6:29 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 11 Feb 2012, at 07:32, Stephen P. King wrote:


Hi ACW,

Thank you for the time and effort to write this up!!!

On 2/9/2012 3:40 PM, acw wrote:


Bruno has always said that COMP is a matter of theology (or  
religion), that is, the provably unprovable, and I agree with  
this. However, let's try and see why that is and why someone  
would take COMP as an assumption:


- The main assumption of COMP is that you admit, at some level, a  
digital substitution, and the stronger assumption that if you  
were to implement/run such a Turing-emulable program, it would be  
conscious and you would have a continuation in it. Isn't that a  
strong theological assumption?

[SPK]
Yes, but it is the substitution of one configuration of  
stuff with another such that the functionality (that allows for  
the implementation/running of the Turing-emulable (Turing  
equivalence!)) program to remain invariant. One thing interesting  
to point out about this is that this substitution can be the  
replacement of completely different kinds of stuff, like carbon  
based stuff with silicon based stuff and does not require a  
continuous physical process of transformation in the sense of  
smoothly morphism the carbon stuff into silicon stuff at some  
primitive level. B/c of this it may seem to bypass the usual  
restrictions of physical laws, but does it really?
What exactly is this physical stuff anyway? If we take a  
hint from the latest ideas in theoretical physics it seems that  
the stuff of the material world is more about properties that  
remain invariant under sets of symmetry transformations and less  
and less about anything like primitive substances. So in a  
sense, the physical world might be considered to be a wide  
assortment of bundles of invariants therefore it seems to me that  
to test COMP we need to see if those symmetry groups and  
invariants can be derived from some proposed underlying logical  
structure. This is what I am trying to do. I am really not arguing  
against COMP, I am arguing that COMP is incomplete as a theory as  
it does not yet show how the appearance of space, time and  
conservation laws emerges in a way that is invariant and not  
primitive.


So you miss the UDA point. The UDA point is that if COMP is true,  
it has to be complete as a theory, independently of the fact that  
the shorter time to derive physics might be 10^1000 millenia. Comp  
explains, by the UDA, that whatever you add to comp, or to RA, or  
to the UD, cannot play any role in consciousness, including the  
feeling that the worlds obeys some role. So if comp is correct the  
las of physics have to be derived from arithmetic alone. Then AUDA  
makes a non trivial part of the derivation. We have already the  
symmetry of the core bottom physics, the quantum indeterminacy, non  
locality, non cloning. But this is just for illustrating the  
consistency: the UDA conclusion is that no matter what, the  
appearance of matter cannot use any supplementary assumption to  
comp and/or arithmetic. You can sum up the UD by comp is not  
completable. It is the Bell-von Neuman answer to Einstein, in your  
analogy below. Arithmetic is made conceptually complete. Whatever  
you add to it will prevent the comp solution of the mind-body  
problem, a bit like evruthing you add to the SWE will reintroduce  
the measurement problem in quantum physics. Comp and arithmetic are  
conceptually complete, but of epistemologically highly incomplete  
and uncompletable.


Also, once you agree that stuff is not primitive, you have to  
define it from your primitive terms, which I don't see possible  
given that your primitive is the word existence which is not  
defined, nor even a theory.


Hi Bruno,

You are still not addressing my questions and what I see as a  
problem. The speed issue and completeness is not just addressing  
from an internal perspective since we have to have invariance over  
many different internal perspectives and these can vary over speed  
and complexity. This is illustrated by the discussion of how stuff  
can vary while preserving the functionality. The 'theory' of  
existence follows naturally from neutral monism, you just need spend  
the effort to understand it.


But I have not yet seen the theory. Existence is a word. A theory,  
when presented, is a set of axioms and inference rules.




Think of this another way, we have a choice between belief that  
COMP is true or COMP is false.


Assuming classical logic applies at the metalevel, and this is not  
obvious to me.





In order to have a coherent notion of a bet, both COMP is True and  
COMP is false have to exist side by side as equivalently possible.


To bet on comp would be an error like Pascal gambit. You can only  
evaluate the theory by yourself, trusting the doctor, and makes some  
bet in case it is the only hope possible. 

Re: 1p 3p comparison

2012-02-11 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Feb 2012, at 15:56, Craig Weinberg wrote:


On Feb 11, 4:03 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 11 Feb 2012, at 03:01, Craig Weinberg wrote:


Dennett's Comp:
Human 1p = 3p(3p(3p)) -


What do you mean precisely by np(np) n = 1 or 3. ?


I'm using 1p or 3p as names only, first person direct phenomenology or
third person objective mechanism. The parenthesis is hierarchical/
holarchical nesting or you could say multiplication.


?



Dennett thinks
that we know that there are only mechanical processes controlling each
other.


Yes. Even in the physical sense. I am not sure if he really means that  
we know that, but then I am used to give a strong sense to knowing.








Subjectivity is an illusion


And I guess we agree that this is total nonsense.


Yes. But only because we have first hand experience ourselves and
cannot doubt it.


OK.




If we could doubt it then there would be no reason to
imagine that there could be such a thing as subjectivity.


OK.

If we doubt it, we have a subjective experience.
If we don't doubt it, too.
So we cannot doubt it.










Machine 1p = 3p(3p(3p)) - Subjectivity is not considered formally



My view:
Human 1p = (1p(1p(1p))) - Subjectivity a fundamental sense modality
which is qualitatively enriched in humans through multiple organic
nestings.


Even infinite organic nestings, which might not even make sense.


No, only seven or so nestings: Physical  Chemical  Biological 
Zoological  Neurological  Anthropological  Individual


By UDA to have no comp you will have to continue such nesting in the  
Physical.

I let you this as a non completely trivial exercise.
I know you will invoke finite things non Turing emulable, but I cannot  
ascribe any sense to that. When you gave me yellow as example, you  
did not convince me. The qualia yellow is 1p simple, but needs a  
complex 3p relation between two universal numbers to be able to be  
manifested in a consistent history.









Machine 1p = (3p(3p(1p))) - Machine subjectivity is limited to
hardware level sense modalities, which can be used to imitate  
human 3p

quantitatively but cannot be enriched qualitatively to human 1p.


Which seems ad hoc for making machine non conscious.
Again we see here that you accept that your position entails the
existence of philosophical zombies,


I call them puppets. Zombies are assumed to have absent qualia,
puppets are understood not to have any qualia in the first place.


Puppets don't handle complex counterfactuals, like humans and  
philosophical zombie. I don't know the difference between absent  
qualia and having no qualia, also.







that is: the existence of
unconscious machines perfectly imitating humans in *all*  
circumstances.


Not perfectly imitating, no.


Sorry but it is the definition.




That's what that whole business of
substitution being indexical is about. I propose more of a formula of
substitution, like in pharmacological toxicity where LD50 represents a
lethal dose in 50% of animal test population. Let's call it TD (Turing
Discovery). What you are talking about is a hypothetical puppet with a
TD00 value - it fails the Turing Test for 0% of test participants
(even itself - since if it didn't then an identical program could be
used to detect the puppet strings).


?
By definition, a philosophical zombie win all Turing test, (except if  
he imitates a human so awkward that people take him for a machine.  
(That happens!)).
By definition philophical zombies behave identically to humans. The  
only difference is that they lack the 1p experience.






The first consideration with this is that it would need to be extended
to have a duration value because any puppet might not reveal it's
strings in a short conversation. A TD00 program might decay to TD75 in
an hour, and TD99 in two hours, so there could be a function plotted
there. It may not be a simple arithmetic rise over time, participants
may change their mind back and forth (and I think that they might)
over time. There could be patterns in that too, where our expectations
wax and wane with some kind of regularity for some people and not for
others. It's not just time duration though, we would need to factor in
the quantity and quality of data. How hard the questions are and how
many of them. Answering long questions too fast would be a dead
giveaway. A sparse conversation may have giveaways too - how they
express impatience with long delays, whether they bring up parts of
the conversation during the gaps, all kinds of subtle clues in the
semantic character of what the program focuses on.

There are so many variables that it may not even be useful to try to
model it. The TD will undoubtedly be affected by how the participants
have been prepared, whether they have experience with AI or have seen
documentaries about it just before or whether they have been instead
prepared with sentimental stories or crime dramas which sensitize them
or desensitize them to certain attitudes and 

Re: Free Floating entities

2012-02-11 Thread acw

On 2/10/2012 14:01, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 2/9/2012 3:40 PM, acw wrote:



Another way to think of it would be in the terms of the Church Turing
Thesis, where you expect that a computation (in the Turing sense) to
have result and that result is independent of all your
implementations, such a result not being changeable in any way or by
anything - that's usually what I imagine by Platonia. It is a bit
mystical, but I find it less mystical than requiring a magical
physical substrate (even more after MGA) - to me the platonic
implementation seems to be the simplest possible explanation. If you
think it's a bad explanation that introduces some magic, I'll respond
that the primitively physical version introduces even more magic.
Making truth changeable or temporal seems to me to be a much stronger,
much more magical than what I'm considering: that arithmetical
sentences do have a truth value, regardless if we know it or not.

[SPK]
I am only asking that we put the abstract world of mathematics on an
even footing with the physical world, I am _not_ asking for a
primitive physical world. I will say again, just because a computation
is independent for any particular implementation that I, you or any one
else is capable of creating does not eliminate the necessity that
somehow it must be implemented physically. Universality of computation
is NOT the severing of computation from its physical implementability.
This is not the same kind of claim as we see of the ultrafinitist and/or
constructivist; it is just a realistic demand that ideas cannot be free
floating entities. We cannot believe in free floating numbers any more
than we can believe in disembodies spirits and ghosts.


What is a non-primitive physical world, what is it based on?
'Existence'? What is that, sounds primitive to me. If we accept
'existence' as primitive, how does math and physical arise out of it?
It seems so general to me that I can't imagine anything at all about
it, to the point of being a God-like non-theory (although I can
sympathize with it, just that it cannot be used as a theory because
it's too general. We'll probably have to settle with something which
we can discuss, such as a part of math.)
Why is 'physical' implementation so important? Those free floating
numbers could very well represent the structures that we and our
universe happen to be and their truths may very well sometimes be this
thing we call 'consciousness'. As for 'spirits' - how does this
'consciousness' thing know which body to follow and observe? How does
it correlate that it must correlate to the physical states present in
the brain? How does it know to appear in a robotic body or VR
environment if someone decides to upload their mind (sometime in the
far future)? What's this continuity of consciousness thing?
Granted that some particular mathematical structure could represent
the physical, I'm not sure it makes sense gran the physical any more
meaning than that which we(our bodies) observe as being part of.


Hi ACW,

A non-primitive world would be a world that is defined by a set of
communications between observers, however the observers are defined. The
notion of a cyclical gossiping as used in graph theory gives a nice
model of how this would work and it even shows a nice toy model of
thermodynamic entropy. See #58 here
http://books.google.com/books?id=SbZKSZ-1qrwCpg=PA32lpg=PA32dq=cyclical+gossiping+graph+theorysource=blots=NAvDjdj7u-sig=kk03XrGRBzdVWI09bh_-yrACM64hl=ensa=Xei=jCI1T8TpM4O4tweVgMG_Agsqi=2ved=0CC8Q6AEwAg#v=onepageqf=false
for a statement of this idea. Also see
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Gossiping.html

A model which allows communication might be nicer to look at, but I 
don't see why it's *required*. I also don't see how it predicts 
different things than a model which just has a 'shared 
computation'/'shared substrate' for each observer?

Onward!

Stephen




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Re: COMP theology

2012-02-11 Thread Joseph Knight
On Sat, Feb 11, 2012 at 11:41 AM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.netwrote:

  On 2/11/2012 6:29 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 11 Feb 2012, at 07:32, Stephen P. King wrote:

  Hi ACW,

 Thank you for the time and effort to write this up!!!

 On 2/9/2012 3:40 PM, acw wrote:

 Bruno has always said that COMP is a matter of theology (or religion),
 that is, the provably unprovable, and I agree with this. However, let's try
 and see why that is and why someone would take COMP as an assumption:

 - The main assumption of COMP is that you admit, at some level, a digital
 substitution, and the stronger assumption that if you were to implement/run
 such a Turing-emulable program, it would be conscious and you would have a
 continuation in it. Isn't that a strong theological assumption?

 [SPK]
 Yes, but it is the substitution of one configuration of stuff with
 another such that the functionality (that allows for the
 implementation/running of the Turing-emulable (Turing equivalence!))
 program to remain invariant. One thing interesting to point out about this
 is that this substitution can be the replacement of completely different
 kinds of stuff, like carbon based stuff with silicon based stuff and does
 not require a continuous physical process of transformation in the sense of
 smoothly morphism the carbon stuff into silicon stuff at some primitive
 level. B/c of this it may seem to bypass the usual restrictions of physical
 laws, but does it really?
 What exactly is this physical stuff anyway? If we take a hint from
 the latest ideas in theoretical physics it seems that the stuff of the
 material world is more about properties that remain invariant under sets of
 symmetry transformations and less and less about anything like primitive
 substances. So in a sense, the physical world might be considered to be a
 wide assortment of bundles of invariants therefore it seems to me that to
 test COMP we need to see if those symmetry groups and invariants can be
 derived from some proposed underlying logical structure. This is what I am
 trying to do. I am really not arguing against COMP, I am arguing that COMP
 is incomplete as a theory as it does not yet show how the appearance of
 space, time and conservation laws emerges in a way that is invariant and
 not primitive.


  So you miss the UDA point. The UDA point is that if COMP is true, it has
 to be complete as a theory, independently of the fact that the shorter time
 to derive physics might be 10^1000 millenia. Comp explains, by the UDA,
 that whatever you add to comp, or to RA, or to the UD, cannot play any role
 in consciousness, including the feeling that the worlds obeys some role. So
 if comp is correct the las of physics have to be derived from arithmetic
 alone. Then AUDA makes a non trivial part of the derivation. We have
 already the symmetry of the core bottom physics, the quantum indeterminacy,
 non locality, non cloning. But this is just for illustrating the
 consistency: the UDA conclusion is that no matter what, the appearance of
 matter cannot use any supplementary assumption to comp and/or arithmetic.
 You can sum up the UD by comp is not completable. It is the Bell-von
 Neuman answer to Einstein, in your analogy below. Arithmetic is made
 conceptually complete. Whatever you add to it will prevent the comp
 solution of the mind-body problem, a bit like evruthing you add to the SWE
 will reintroduce the measurement problem in quantum physics. Comp and
 arithmetic are conceptually complete, but of epistemologically highly
 incomplete and uncompletable.

  Also, once you agree that stuff is not primitive, you have to define it
 from your primitive terms, which I don't see possible given that your
 primitive is the word existence which is not defined, nor even a theory.


 Hi Bruno,

 You are still not addressing my questions and what I see as a problem.
 The speed issue and completeness is not just addressing from an internal
 perspective since we have to have invariance over many different internal
 perspectives and these can vary over speed and complexity. This is
 illustrated by the discussion of how stuff can vary while preserving the
 functionality. The 'theory' of existence follows naturally from neutral
 monism, you just need spend the effort to understand it.
 Think of this another way, we have a choice between belief that COMP
 is true or COMP is false. In order to have a coherent notion of a bet,
 both COMP is True and COMP is false have to exist side by side as
 equivalently possible.


Yet COMP is true AND COMP is false is necessarily false.


  If we consider that they only can have this side by side equivalence in
 the mind, then we obtain the situation that their truth value is dependent
 on the choice,


How? Just because you bet on something doesn't make it a correct bet. Just
because you hold two contradictory propositions to have equal credence,
doesn't make them both correct. I don't see where this is 

Re: Truth values as dynamics?

2012-02-11 Thread acw

On 2/11/2012 05:49, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 2/9/2012 3:40 PM, acw wrote:

I think the idea of Platonia is closer to the fact that if a sentence
has a truth-value, it will have that truth value, regardless if you
know it or not.


Sure, but it is not just you to whom a given sentence may have the
same
exact truth value. This is like Einstein arguing with Bohr with the
quip: The moon is still there when I do not see it. My reply to
Einstein would be: Sir, you are not the only observer of the moon! We
have to look at the situation from the point of view of many observers
or, in this case, truth detectors, that can interact and communicate
consistently with each other. We cannot think is just solipsistic
terms.


Sure, but what if nobody is looking at the moon? Or instead of moon,
pick something even less likely to be observed. To put it differently,
Riemann hypothesis or Goldbach's conjecture truth-value should not
depend on the observers thinking of it - they may eventually discover
it, and such a discovery would depend on many computational
consequences, of which the observers may not be aware of yet, but
doesn't mean that those consequences don't exist - when the
computation is locally performed, it will always give the same result
which could be said to exist timelessly.

[SPK]
My point is that any one or thing that could be affected by the truth
value of the moon has X, Y, Z properties will, in effect, be an
observer of the moon since it is has a definite set of properties as
knowledge. The key here is causal efficacy, if a different state of
affairs would result if some part of the world is changed then the
conditions of that part of the world are observed. The same thing
holds for the truth value Riemann hypothesis or Goldbach's conjecture,
since there would be different worlds for each of their truth values. My
point is that while the truth value or reality of the moon does not
depend on the observation by any _one_ observer, it does depend for its
definiteness on the possibility that it could be observed by some
observer. It is the possibility that makes the difference. A object that
cannot be observer by any means, including these arcane versions that I
just laid out, cannot be said to have a definite set of properties or
truth value, to say the opposite is equivalent to making a truth claim
about a mathematical object for whom no set of equations or
representation can be made.


You're conjecturing here that there were worlds where Riemann
hypothesis or Goldbach's conjecture have different truth values. I
don't think arithmetical truths which happen to have proofs have
indexical truth values, this is due to CTT. Although most physical
truths are indexical (or depend on the axioms chosen).
We could limit ourselves to decidable arithmetical truths only, but
you'd bump into the problem of consistency of arithmetic or the
halting problem. It makes no sense to me that a machine which is
defined to either halt or not halt would not do either. We might not
know if a machine halts or not, but that doesn't mean that if when ran
in any possible world it would behave differently. Arithmetical truth
should be the same in all possible worlds. An observer can find out a
truth value, but it cannot alter it, unless it is an indexical
(context-dependent truth, such as what time it is now or where do
you live).
Of course, we cannot talk about the truth value of undefined stuff,
that would be non-sense. However, we can talk about the truth value of
what cannot be observed - this machine never halts is only true if
no observation of the machine halting can ever be made, in virtue of
how the machine is defined, yet someone could use various
meta-reasoning to reach the conclusion that the machine will never
halt (consistency of arithmetic is very much similar to the halting
problem - it's only consistent if a machine which enumerates proofs
never finds a proof of 0=1; of course, this is not provable within
arithmetic itself, thus it's a provably unprovable statement for any
consistent machine, thus can only be a matter of theology as Bruno
calls it).


Hi ACW,

I am considering that the truth value is a function of the theory with
which a proposition is evaluated. In other words, meaningfulness,
including truth value, is contextual while existence is absolute.

Of course it's a function of the theory. Although, I do think some 
theories like arithmetic, computability and first-order logic are so 
general and infectious that they can be found in literally any 
non-trivial theory. That is, one cannot really escape their 
consequences. At that point, one might as well consider them absolute.
That said, an axiom that says you're now in structure X and state Y 
would be very much contextual.

Onward!

Stephen




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Re: COMP theology (was: Ontological Problems of COMP)

2012-02-11 Thread Joseph Knight
On Sat, Feb 11, 2012 at 12:32 AM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.netwrote:

  Hi ACW,

 Thank you for the time and effort to write this up!!!

 On 2/9/2012 3:40 PM, acw wrote:

 Bruno has always said that COMP is a matter of theology (or religion),
 that is, the provably unprovable, and I agree with this. However, let's try
 and see why that is and why someone would take COMP as an assumption:

 - The main assumption of COMP is that you admit, at some level, a digital
 substitution, and the stronger assumption that if you were to implement/run
 such a Turing-emulable program, it would be conscious and you would have a
 continuation in it. Isn't that a strong theological assumption?

 [SPK]
 Yes, but it is the substitution of one configuration of stuff with
 another such that the functionality (that allows for the
 implementation/running of the Turing-emulable (Turing equivalence!))
 program to remain invariant. One thing interesting to point out about this
 is that this substitution can be the replacement of completely different
 kinds of stuff, like carbon based stuff with silicon based stuff and does
 not require a continuous physical process of transformation in the sense of
 smoothly morphism the carbon stuff into silicon stuff at some primitive
 level. B/c of this it may seem to bypass the usual restrictions of physical
 laws, but does it really?
 What exactly is this physical stuff anyway? If we take a hint from
 the latest ideas in theoretical physics it seems that the stuff of the
 material world is more about properties that remain invariant under sets of
 symmetry transformations and less and less about anything like primitive
 substances. So in a sense, the physical world might be considered to be a
 wide assortment of bundles of invariants therefore it seems to me that to
 test COMP we need to see if those symmetry groups and invariants can be
 derived from some proposed underlying logical structure. This is what I am
 trying to do. I am really not arguing against COMP, I am arguing that COMP
 is incomplete as a theory as it does not yet show how the appearance of
 space, time and conservation laws emerges in a way that is invariant and
 not primitive. I guess I have the temerity to play Einstein against Bruno's
 Bohr. :-) OTOH, I am not arguing for any kind of return to naive realism or
 that the physical world is the totality of existence. I do know that I am
 just a curious amateur, so I welcome any critique that might help me learn.


  I think it is, but at the same time, it has solid consequences and a
 belief in it can be justified for a number of reasons:
  a) Fading qualia thought experiment, which shows that consciousness is
 utterly fickle if it doesn't follow a principle of functional /
 organizational invariance. Most of our sense data tends to point that such
 a principle makes sense. Avoiding it means consciousness does not
 correspond to brain states and p. zombies.


 Certainly! We need a precise explanation for psycho-physical
 parallelism. My tentative explanation is that at our level a form of
 dualism holds. A dualism quite unlike that of Descartes, since instead of
 separate substances, it is proposed that the logical and the physical are
 two distinct aspect of reality that follow on equal yet anti-parallel
 tracks. As Vaughan Pratt explains in his papers, the logical processes and
 the physical processes have dynamics that have arrows that point in
 opposite directions. Schematically and crudely we can show a quasi-category
 theory diagram of this duality:

   X - Y -
  |   |
 - A --B -

 The vertical lines represent the Stone duality relation and the
 horizontal arrow represent logical entailment and physical causation. The
 chaining (or *residuation*)  rule is X causes Y iff B necessitates A,
 where X and A and duals and Y and B and duals. This duality prohibits
 zombies and disembodied spirits. There is much more to this diagram as it
 does not include the endomorphisms, homeomorphisms and other mappings and
 objects that are involved in the full implementation of the *residuation*rule.
 I just found a paper by Martin Wehr
 www.dcs.ed.ac.uk/home/wehr/newpage/Papers/qc.ps.gz that elaborates on
 Pratt's idea and explains *residuation* better! Here is the abstract:

Quantum Computing: A new Paradigm and it's Type Theory

   Martin Wehr

Quantum Computing Seminar, Lehrstuhl Prof. Beth,
Universitat Karlsruhe, July 1996


 To use quantum mechanical behavior for computing has
 been proposed by Feynman. Shor gave an algorithm for
 the quantum computer which raised a big stream of research.
 This was because Shor's algorithm did reduce the yet assumed exponential
 complexity of the security relevant factorization problem, to
 a quadratic complexity if quantum computed.

   In the paper a short introduction to quantum mechanics can be
 found in the appendix. With this material the operation 

Re: COMP theology

2012-02-11 Thread acw

On 2/11/2012 06:32, Stephen P. King wrote:

Hi ACW,

Thank you for the time and effort to write this up!!!

On 2/9/2012 3:40 PM, acw wrote:

Bruno has always said that COMP is a matter of theology (or religion),
that is, the provably unprovable, and I agree with this. However,
let's try and see why that is and why someone would take COMP as an
assumption:

- The main assumption of COMP is that you admit, at some level, a
digital substitution, and the stronger assumption that if you were to
implement/run such a Turing-emulable program, it would be conscious
and you would have a continuation in it. Isn't that a strong
theological assumption?

[SPK]
Yes, but it is the substitution of one configuration of stuff with
another such that the functionality (that allows for the
implementation/running of the Turing-emulable (Turing equivalence!))
program to remain invariant. One thing interesting to point out about
this is that this substitution can be the replacement of completely
different kinds of stuff, like carbon based stuff with silicon based
stuff and does not require a continuous physical process of
transformation in the sense of smoothly morphism the carbon stuff into
silicon stuff at some primitive level. B/c of this it may seem to bypass
the usual restrictions of physical laws, but does it really?
It bypasses a lot of restrictions, see UDA step 1-7, and my previous 
example with the past time-travel. With UDA step 7, it makes the 
primitively physical either forever unknowable and with step 8 and MGA 
it makes it superfluous/unnecessary.

What exactly is this physical stuff anyway? If we take a hint from the
latest ideas in theoretical physics it seems that the stuff of the
material world is more about properties that remain invariant under sets
of symmetry transformations and less and less about anything like
primitive substances. So in a sense, the physical world might be
considered to be a wide assortment of bundles of invariants therefore it
seems to me that to test COMP we need to see if those symmetry groups
and invariants can be derived from some proposed underlying logical
structure. This is what I am trying to do. I am really not arguing
against COMP, I am arguing that COMP is incomplete as a theory as it
does not yet show how the appearance of space, time and conservation
laws emerges in a way that is invariant and not primitive. I guess I
have the temerity to play Einstein against Bruno's Bohr. :-)
Yes, modern physics does indeed point us toward our physics being quite 
simple and symmetrical, where by 'simple' I mean 'low complexity' (in 
the Occam, or Solomonoff inductive sense, Kolmogorov complexity, ...). 
COMP seems to argue toward that as well, although I don't think we can 
just look at some UD implementation and find some machines partially 
implementing our universe right at the start - we don't have those kinds 
of computational resources. Smarter ways to get to physics through AUDA 
might be better ideas, but I do think that whatever our physics is, 
we'll have to use some indexical properties, we cannot rely on a single 
universe assumption.


 OTOH, I am
 not arguing for any kind of return to naive realism or that the
 physical world is the totality of existence. I do know that I am
 just a curious amateur, so I welcome any critique that might help me
 learn.
I'm a novice myself. You seem to be much more knowledgeable than me in 
some subjects (such as category theory).






I think it is, but at the same time, it has solid consequences and a
belief in it can be justified for a number of reasons:
a) Fading qualia thought experiment, which shows that consciousness is
utterly fickle if it doesn't follow a principle of functional /
organizational invariance. Most of our sense data tends to point that
such a principle makes sense. Avoiding it means consciousness does not
correspond to brain states and p. zombies.


Certainly! We need a precise explanation for psycho-physical
parallelism.
In COMP, the physical is a shadow of arithmetical truth. Making it too 
much more than that will either introduce zombies or some substrate 
dependence (which part of the UDA do you disagree with?).

My tentative explanation is that at our level a form of
dualism holds. A dualism quite unlike that of Descartes, since instead
of separate substances, it is proposed that the logical and the
physical are two distinct aspect of reality that follow on equal yet
anti-parallel tracks. As Vaughan Pratt explains in his papers, the
logical processes and the physical processes have dynamics that have
arrows that point in opposite directions. Schematically and crudely we
can show a quasi-category theory diagram of this duality:

  X - Y -
| |
- A --B -

The vertical lines represent the Stone duality relation and the
horizontal arrow represent logical entailment and physical causation.
The chaining (or /residuation/) rule is X causes Y iff B necessitates
A, where X and A and duals and Y 

Re: COMP theology

2012-02-11 Thread meekerdb

On 2/11/2012 2:16 PM, Joseph Knight wrote:
What exactly is this physical stuff anyway? If we take a hint from the latest 
ideas in theoretical physics it seems that the stuff of the material world is more 
about properties that remain invariant under sets of symmetry transformations and less 
and less about anything like primitive substances. So in a sense, the physical world 
might be considered to be a wide assortment of bundles of invariants therefore it seems 
to me that to test COMP we need to see if those symmetry groups and invariants can be 
derived from some proposed underlying logical structure. This is what I am trying to do. 
I am really not arguing against COMP, I am arguing that COMP is incomplete as a theory 
as it does not yet show how the appearance of space, time and conservation laws emerges 
in a way that is invariant and not primitive. I guess I have the temerity to play 
Einstein against Bruno's Bohr. :-) OTOH, I am not arguing for any kind of return to 
naive realism or that the physical world is the totality of existence. I do know that I 
am just a curious amateur, so I welcome any critique that might help me learn.


The only way I can see for the physical to emerge is from some 'anthropic' 3p argument. 
For example, energy conservation is implied by time-translation invariance and without 
time-translation invariance we wouldn't call something a 'physical law'.   A 'law' that 
varied with time would be regarded as an 'accident'.


Brent


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Re: 1p 3p comparison

2012-02-11 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Feb 11, 3:51 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 11 Feb 2012, at 15:56, Craig Weinberg wrote:


  Dennett's Comp:
  Human 1p = 3p(3p(3p)) -

  What do you mean precisely by np(np) n = 1 or 3. ?

  I'm using 1p or 3p as names only, first person direct phenomenology or
  third person objective mechanism. The parenthesis is hierarchical/
  holarchical nesting or you could say multiplication.

 ?

I'm not using 1p and 3p in any standard way. 3p(3p(3p)) represents a
top level mechanical process that is controlled by lower level
mechanical processes that are controlled by lower level mechanical
processes. 1p(1p(1p)) represents a top level self that contains or
incorporates sub-selves and their sub-selves. This is a very different
scaling than 3p, since there is a continuum of voluntary and
involuntary incorporation. It's not a bunch of discrete gears or
subroutines, it is a fugue of directly and indirectly experienced
motives


  Dennett thinks
  that we know that there are only mechanical processes controlling each
  other.

 Yes. Even in the physical sense. I am not sure if he really means that
 we know that, but then I am used to give a strong sense to knowing.



  Subjectivity is an illusion

  And I guess we agree that this is total nonsense.

  Yes. But only because we have first hand experience ourselves and
  cannot doubt it.

 OK.

  If we could doubt it then there would be no reason to
  imagine that there could be such a thing as subjectivity.

 OK.

 If we doubt it, we have a subjective experience.
 If we don't doubt it, too.
 So we cannot doubt it.


Yes!



  Machine 1p = 3p(3p(3p)) - Subjectivity is not considered formally

  My view:
  Human 1p = (1p(1p(1p))) - Subjectivity a fundamental sense modality
  which is qualitatively enriched in humans through multiple organic
  nestings.

  Even infinite organic nestings, which might not even make sense.

  No, only seven or so nestings: Physical  Chemical  Biological 
  Zoological  Neurological  Anthropological  Individual

 By UDA to have no comp you will have to continue such nesting in the
 Physical.
 I let you this as a non completely trivial exercise.

I call the intra-physical nesting (quantum-arithmetic) a virtual
nesting. I think that what we measure at that level is literally the
most 'common sense' of matter, and not an independent phenomena. It is
the logic of matter, not the embodiment of logic. It's a small detail
really, but when logic is the sense of matter then all events are
anchored in the singularity, so that ultimately the cosmos coheres as
a single story. If matter is the embodiment of logic then authenticity
is not possible, and all events are redundant and arbitrary universes
unto themselves.

 I know you will invoke finite things non Turing emulable, but I cannot
 ascribe any sense to that. When you gave me yellow as example, you
 did not convince me. The qualia yellow is 1p simple, but needs a
 complex 3p relation between two universal numbers to be able to be
 manifested in a consistent history.

I think that the 1p simplicity is all that is required. It does not
need to be understood or sensed as a complex relation at all, indeed
it isn't even possible to bridge the two descriptions. The 3p quant
correlation is not yellow, nor does it need yellowness to accomplish
any computational purpose whatsoever. Even if it did, where would it
get yellowness from? Why not gribbow or shlue instead? Of all beings
in the universe, we are the only ones we know of who can even conceive
of a 3p quant correlation to 1p qualities. Most things will live and
die with nothing but the 1p descriptions, therefore we cannot assume
the universe to be incomplete for those beings. If they had the power
to create a copy of their universe, they could do it based only on
their naive perception, just as our ability to create a copy of the
universe we understand would not be limited by our incomplete
understanding of the universe. The 1p experiences make sense on their
own.




  Machine 1p = (3p(3p(1p))) - Machine subjectivity is limited to
  hardware level sense modalities, which can be used to imitate
  human 3p
  quantitatively but cannot be enriched qualitatively to human 1p.

  Which seems ad hoc for making machine non conscious.
  Again we see here that you accept that your position entails the
  existence of philosophical zombies,

  I call them puppets. Zombies are assumed to have absent qualia,
  puppets are understood not to have any qualia in the first place.

 Puppets don't handle complex counterfactuals, like humans and
 philosophical zombie. I don't know the difference between absent
 qualia and having no qualia, also.

A puppet could handle any degree of complexity that was anticipated by
the puppet master. The difference between absent qualia and no qualia
is that absent qualia presumes the possibility of presence. We already
know from blindsight that qualia can indeed be absent as well.




  that is: the existence of
  

Re: COMP theology

2012-02-11 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/11/2012 6:13 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 2/11/2012 2:16 PM, Joseph Knight wrote:
What exactly is this physical stuff anyway? If we take a hint 
from the latest ideas in theoretical physics it seems that the 
stuff of the material world is more about properties that remain 
invariant under sets of symmetry transformations and less and less 
about anything like primitive substances. So in a sense, the 
physical world might be considered to be a wide assortment of bundles 
of invariants therefore it seems to me that to test COMP we need to 
see if those symmetry groups and invariants can be derived from some 
proposed underlying logical structure. This is what I am trying to 
do. I am really not arguing against COMP, I am arguing that COMP is 
incomplete as a theory as it does not yet show how the appearance of 
space, time and conservation laws emerges in a way that is invariant 
and not primitive. I guess I have the temerity to play Einstein 
against Bruno's Bohr. :-) OTOH, I am not arguing for any kind of 
return to naive realism or that the physical world is the totality of 
existence. I do know that I am just a curious amateur, so I welcome 
any critique that might help me learn.


The only way I can see for the physical to emerge is from some 
'anthropic' 3p argument. For example, energy conservation is implied 
by time-translation invariance and without time-translation invariance 
we wouldn't call something a 'physical law'.   A 'law' that varied 
with time would be regarded as an 'accident'.


Brent

Hi Brent,

Your point here is powerful and is part of my argument against any 
form of ideal monism, such as Platonism.


Onward!

Stephen

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Re: Intelligence and consciousness

2012-02-11 Thread John Clark
On Fri, Feb 10, 2012  Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 I think you are radically overestimating the size of the book and the
 importance of the size to the experiment. ELIZA was about 20Kb.


TO HELL WITH ELIZA That prehistoric program is NOT intelligent! What is
the point of a though experiment that gives stupid useless answers to
questions?

If it's a thousand times better than ELIZA, then you've got a 20 Mb
rule book.

For heavens sake, if a 20 Mb look-up table  was sufficient we would have
had AI decades ago.

Since you can't do so let me make the best case for the Chinese Room from
your point of view and the most difficult case to defend from mine. Let's
say you're right and the size of the lookup table is not important so we
won't worry that it's larger than the observable universe, and let's say
time is not a issue either so we won't worry that it operates a billion
trillion times slower than our mind, and let's say the Chinese Room doesn't
do ELIZA style bullshit but can engage in a brilliant and interesting (if
you are very very very patient) conversation with you in Chinese or any
other language about anything. And lets have the little man not only be
ignorant of Chinese but be retarded and thus not understand anything in any
language, he can only look at input symbols and then look at the huge
lookup table till he finds similar squiggles and the appropriate response
to those squiggles which he then outputs. The man has no idea what's going
on, he just looks at input squiggles and matches them up with output
squiggles, but from outside the room it's very different.

You ask the room to produce a quantum theory of gravity and it does so, you
ask it to output a new poem that a considerable fraction of the human race
would consider to be very beautiful and it does so, you ask it to output a
original fantasy children's novel that will be more popular than Harry
Potter and it does so. The room certainly behaves intelligently but the man
was not conscious of any of the answers produced, as I've said the man
doesn't have a clue what's going on, so does this disprove my assertion
that intelligent behavior implies consciousness?

No it does not, or at least it probably does not, this is why. That
reference book that contains everything that can be said about anything
that can be asked in a finite time would be large, astronomical would be
far far too weak a word to describe it, but it would not be infinitely
large so it remains a legitimate thought experiment. However that
astounding lookup table came from somewhere, whoever or whatever made it
had to be very intelligent indeed and also I believe conscious, and so the
brilliance of the actions of the Chinese Room does indeed imply
consciousness.

You may say that even if I'm right about that then a computer doing smart
things would just imply the consciousness of the people who made the
computer. But here is where the analogy breaks down, real computers don't
work like the Chinese Room does, they don't have anything remotely like
that astounding lookup table; the godlike thing that made the Chinese Room
knows exactly what that room will do in every circumstance, but computer
scientists don't know what their creation will do, all they can do is watch
it and see.

But you may also say, I don't care how the room got made, I was talking
about inside the room and I insist there was no consciousness inside that
room. I would say assigning a position to consciousness is a little like
assigning a position to fast or red or any other adjective, it doesn't
make a lot of sense. If your conscious exists anywhere it's not inside a
vat made of bone balancing on your shoulders, it's where you're thinking
about. I am the way matter behaves when it is organized in a johnkclarkian
way and other things are the way matter behaves when it is organized in a
chineseroomian way.

And by the way, I don't intend to waste my time defending the assertion
that intelligent behavior implies intelligence, that would be like debating
if X implies X or not, I have better things to do with my time.

  The King James Bible can be downloaded here



No thanks, I'll pass on that.

 Only?! Einstein only seemed intelligent to scientifically literate
 speakers in the outside world.



No, he was aware of his own intelligence too.


How the hell do you know that? And you seem to be using the words
intelligent and conscious interchangeably, they are not synonyms.

  If you start out defining intelligence as an abstract function and
 category of behaviors


Which is the only operational definition of intelligence.

 rather than quality of consciousness


Which is a totally useless definition in investigating the intelligence of
a computer or a person or a animal or of ANYTHING.

 I use ELIZA as an example because you can clearly see that it is not
 intelligent


So can I, so when you use that idiot program to try to advance your
antediluvian ideas it proves 

Re: Intelligence and consciousness

2012-02-11 Thread L.W. Sterritt
I don't really understand this thread - magical thinking?   The neural network 
between our ears is who / what we are,  and everything that we will experience. 
 It is the source of consciousness - even if consciousness is regarded as an 
epiphenomenon.  

Gandalph

 
On Feb 11, 2012, at 9:34 PM, John Clark wrote:

 On Fri, Feb 10, 2012  Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:
 
  I think you are radically overestimating the size of the book and the 
 importance of the size to the experiment. ELIZA was about 20Kb.
 
 TO HELL WITH ELIZA That prehistoric program is NOT intelligent! What is 
 the point of a though experiment that gives stupid useless answers to 
 questions?
 
 If it's a thousand times better than ELIZA, then you've got a 20 Mb rule 
 book. 
 
 For heavens sake, if a 20 Mb look-up table  was sufficient we would have had 
 AI decades ago.  
 
 Since you can't do so let me make the best case for the Chinese Room from 
 your point of view and the most difficult case to defend from mine. Let's say 
 you're right and the size of the lookup table is not important so we won't 
 worry that it's larger than the observable universe, and let's say time is 
 not a issue either so we won't worry that it operates a billion trillion 
 times slower than our mind, and let's say the Chinese Room doesn't do ELIZA 
 style bullshit but can engage in a brilliant and interesting (if you are very 
 very very patient) conversation with you in Chinese or any other language 
 about anything. And lets have the little man not only be ignorant of Chinese 
 but be retarded and thus not understand anything in any language, he can only 
 look at input symbols and then look at the huge lookup table till he finds 
 similar squiggles and the appropriate response to those squiggles which he 
 then outputs. The man has no idea what's going on, he just looks at input 
 squiggles and matches them up with output squiggles, but from outside the 
 room it's very different. 
 
 You ask the room to produce a quantum theory of gravity and it does so, you 
 ask it to output a new poem that a considerable fraction of the human race 
 would consider to be very beautiful and it does so, you ask it to output a 
 original fantasy children's novel that will be more popular than Harry Potter 
 and it does so. The room certainly behaves intelligently but the man was not 
 conscious of any of the answers produced, as I've said the man doesn't have a 
 clue what's going on, so does this disprove my assertion that intelligent 
 behavior implies consciousness?
 
 No it does not, or at least it probably does not, this is why. That reference 
 book that contains everything that can be said about anything that can be 
 asked in a finite time would be large, astronomical would be far far too 
 weak a word to describe it, but it would not be infinitely large so it 
 remains a legitimate thought experiment. However that astounding lookup table 
 came from somewhere, whoever or whatever made it had to be very intelligent 
 indeed and also I believe conscious, and so the brilliance of the actions of 
 the Chinese Room does indeed imply consciousness. 
 
 You may say that even if I'm right about that then a computer doing smart 
 things would just imply the consciousness of the people who made the 
 computer. But here is where the analogy breaks down, real computers don't 
 work like the Chinese Room does, they don't have anything remotely like that 
 astounding lookup table; the godlike thing that made the Chinese Room knows 
 exactly what that room will do in every circumstance, but computer scientists 
 don't know what their creation will do, all they can do is watch it and see.  
 
 But you may also say, I don't care how the room got made, I was talking about 
 inside the room and I insist there was no consciousness inside that room. I 
 would say assigning a position to consciousness is a little like assigning a 
 position to fast or red or any other adjective, it doesn't make a lot of 
 sense. If your conscious exists anywhere it's not inside a vat made of bone 
 balancing on your shoulders, it's where you're thinking about. I am the way 
 matter behaves when it is organized in a johnkclarkian way and other things 
 are the way matter behaves when it is organized in a chineseroomian way. 
 
 And by the way, I don't intend to waste my time defending the assertion that 
 intelligent behavior implies intelligence, that would be like debating if X 
 implies X or not, I have better things to do with my time.  
 
   The King James Bible can be downloaded here
 
 
 No thanks, I'll pass on that.
 
  Only?! Einstein only seemed intelligent to scientifically literate 
  speakers in the outside world.
  
No, he was aware of his own intelligence too. 
 
 How the hell do you know that? And you seem to be using the words 
 intelligent and conscious interchangeably, they are not synonyms.
 
   If you start out defining intelligence as an 

Re: Intelligence and consciousness

2012-02-11 Thread meekerdb

On 2/11/2012 9:34 PM, John Clark wrote:
You may say that even if I'm right about that then a computer doing smart things would 
just imply the consciousness of the people who made the computer. But here is where the 
analogy breaks down, real computers don't work like the Chinese Room does, they don't 
have anything remotely like that astounding lookup table; the godlike thing that made 
the Chinese Room knows exactly what that room will do in every circumstance, but 
computer scientists don't know what their creation will do, all they can do is watch it 
and see.


Not only that, a computer implementing AI would be able to learn from it's discussion.  
Even if it started with an astronomically large look-up table, the look-up table would grow.


Brent

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