Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Jun 2015, at 18:35, John Clark wrote:


On Sat, Jun 6, 2015  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 An event is just a place and a time; are you saying that  
mathematics is incapable of handling 4 coordinates?


 Of course, applied mathematics exists, and you can represent event  
in mathematics, but you shopuld not confuse something (a physical  
event) and its mathematical representation.


I am not confusing that but I think sometimes you might be confusing  
a physical thing with the language (mathematics) the descriptive  
representation of the thing is presented in. Or maybe not, maybe  
you're right and mathematics is more than just a language and is  
more fundamental than physics; nobody knows including you.



Nobody can know. But we can reason from hypothesis. With the  
computationalist hypothesis, the immateriality of consciousness is  
contagious on the possible environment.  Nobody pretends this is  
obvious, especially for people stuck at the step 3.






 but if something requires an infinite number of steps to  
determine what it will do its not very deterministic.


 It is, when you agree to apply the excluded middle on the  
arithmetical proposition, or actually it is enough to believe that a  
closed Turing machine stop or does not stop.


Deterministic perhaps, but not predictable even in theory.


OK, but that is enough to conceive the set of the Gödel number of true  
sentences of arithmetic, and prove theorems about that set. That set  
can be defined in standard set theory or second-order arithmetic  
(analysis).







 Bullshit. I have never argued anything about comp1 and never  
will because I'm sick to death with comp of any variety.


 In some post you argued once that comp1 is trivial,

 ?

!

 I remember you said that comp as I meant it is trivially, true, is  
wrong (btw). If you don't remember what you post, the conversation  
might loss its meaning.


Half of your theory is true but trivial, the other half is not  
trivial and not true.


You don't know the other half. You said repeatedly that you never find  
the need to read after step 3. And you show to know nothing about  
computability theory (which explains why the second part eludes you).


So you have read 3/8 of the simple part (done for the novice), that is  
3/16 of the work, and you judged it?






As for comp... I have so often heard you say according to comp  
blah blah that I no longer know what your silly little homemade  
slang word is supposed to mean, but I do know it can't mean  
Computationalism. And now dear god we've got comp1 and comp2 to  
add to the mix!


That was a gentle attempt by Liz to make sense of *your* distinction  
(between Computationalism (comp1) and what I explain as consequence of  
it, comp2). Comp2 is computationalism when you understand UDA, and  
that primitive matter is transformed into a god of the gap type of  
notion, with respect to the mind-body problem, or even just the body  
problem.


It is not that we don't need the notion of primary matter, it is that  
even if that exists, we can't relate it to consciousness in any way.


If we would need a piece of matter, either it is Turing emulable, and  
it means we did not get the level right, or it is not Turing emulable,  
and then, its needs just shows that comp is wrong. QED.


UDA is a question, and AUDA is the non trivial beginning of the  
Universal Machine's answer, when she introspect herself enough (can  
prove its only universality, in some technical precise sense).


But how foolish am I when trying someone to listen to the machine, if  
that person cannot even listen to humans.


The universal machines, like babies, are born intelligent, but they  
can evolve and become stupid, feeling superior, and destroying  
themselves.


Bruno








  John K Clark



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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Jun 2015, at 02:00, Bruce Kellett wrote:


meekerdb wrote:

On 6/5/2015 4:29 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

meekerdb wrote:

On 6/5/2015 12:22 PM, John Clark wrote:
On Fri, Jun 5, 2015 , meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
 wrote:


It's very relevant if you want to know what is a  
simplified

   approximation of what. And we both agree that a electronic
   computer is vastly more complex than it's logical  
schematic,

   so why can we make a working model of the complex thing but
   not make a working model of the simple thing when usually  
it's
   easier to make a simple thing than a complex thing? The  
only

   answer that comes to mind is that particular simplified
   approximation is just too simplified and just too  
approximate
   to actually do anything. That simplification must be  
missing

   something important, matter that obeys the laws of physics.

The trouble with this argument is that the laws of physics  
are

   mathematical abstractions.


Mathematicians are always saying that mathematics is a language,  
but what would be the consequences if that were really true? The  
best way known to describe the laws of physics is to write then  
in the language of mathematics, but a language is not the thing  
the language is describing.


I agree the laws of physics are descriptions we invent; but even  
so they are abstractions and not material and what they define is  
only an approximation to what happens in the world.  That's what  
makes them useful - they let us make predictions while leaving  
out a lot of stuff.


So what is this lot of stuff that the mathematical abstractions  
leave out? In response you your initial point that the laws of  
physics are mathematical abstractions, the obvious questions is  
Abstractions from what?
Abstractions from physical events.  We find we can leave out stuff  
like the location (and so conserve momentum) and the position of  
distant galaxies and the name of the experimenter and which god he  
prays to etc.  Of course what we can leave out and what we must  
include is part of applying the theory.  Physicists work by  
considering simple experiments in which they can leave out as much  
stuff they're not interested in as possible in order to test their  
theory.  Engineers don't get to be so choosy about what's left out;  
they have to consider what events may obtain.  But they also get to  
throw in safety factors to mitigate their ignorance.


In other words, in this account, the pre-existing physical world is  
taken as a given, from which laws are simplified abstractions. Fine,  
that's the way I think it is.


No problem when doing physics. But when working on the mind-body  
problem, we get reason to think that is not the way things are.  
Physics needs not to be physicalist, even if it is so FAPP.


Bruno




Bruce

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread John Clark
On Sat, Jun 6, 2015  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 An event is just a place and a time; are you saying that mathematics is
 incapable of handling 4 coordinates?


  Of course, applied mathematics exists, and you can represent event in
 mathematics, but you shopuld not confuse something (a physical event) and
 its mathematical representation.


I am not confusing that but I think sometimes you might be confusing a
physical thing with the language (mathematics) the descriptive
representation of the thing is presented in. Or maybe not, maybe you're
right and mathematics is more than just a language and is more fundamental
than physics; nobody knows including you.

 but if something requires an infinite number of steps to determine what
 it will do its not very deterministic.


  It is, when you agree to apply the excluded middle on the arithmetical
 proposition, or actually it is enough to believe that a closed Turing
 machine stop or does not stop.


Deterministic perhaps, but not predictable even in theory.

 Bullshit. I have never argued anything about comp1 and never will
 because I'm sick to death with comp of any variety.



 In some post you argued once that comp1 is trivial,

  ?


!

 I remember you said that comp as I meant it is trivially, true, is wrong
 (btw). If you don't remember what you post, the conversation might loss its
 meaning.


Half of your theory is true but trivial, the other half is not trivial and
not true. As for comp... I have so often heard you say according to comp
blah blah that I no longer know what your silly little homemade slang word
is supposed to mean, but I do know it can't mean Computationalism. And now
dear god we've got comp1 and comp2 to add to the mix!

  John K Clark

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Jun 2015, at 20:35, John Clark wrote:


On Fri, Jun 5, 2015 Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Event is a physical notion. Algorithmic non compressibility is  
an mathematical notion.


An event is just a place and a time; are you saying that mathematics  
is incapable of handling 4 coordinates?


Of course, applied mathematics exists, and you can represent event in  
mathematics, but you shopuld not confuse something (a physical event)  
and its mathematical representation.







 Nothing caused the 9884th digit of a random number to be a 6  
rather than some other digit, and that is the one and only reason it  
is NOT algorithmically incompressible. But something did cause the  
9884th digit of PI to be a 4 and not some other digit, and that's  
why PI IS algorithmically compressible.


 I have a counter-example to your claim. Fix a universal system. It  
determines completely its Chaitin number, yet it is algorithmically  
incompressible.


I don't know what you mean by fix


I mean choose one. If you take a Fortran universal interpreter, you  
can define its Chaitin number. The Chaitin number is relative to the  
choice of a universal system.




but if something requires an infinite number of steps to determine  
what it will do its not very deterministic.


It is, when you agree to apply the excluded middle on the arithmetical  
proposition, or actually it is enough to believe that a closed Turing  
machine stop or does not stop.






 In some post you argued once that comp1 is trivial,

Bullshit. I have never argued anything about comp1 and never will  
because I'm sick to death with comp of any variety.


?

I remember you said that comp as I meant it is trivially, true, is  
wrong (btw). If you don't remember what you post, the conversation  
might loss its meaning.



Bruno








 If time or space is quantized as most physicists think it is then  
the real numbers are just a simplified approximation of what happens  
in the physical world.


 Typically, physical quantization is defined by using complex  
numbers.


Because even if space and time are quantized the discrete steps are  
so little that complex numbers are a good approximation of the  
physical world unless you're dealing with things that are ultra  
super small.


 But again, the point was just that CT does not refer to physics.

Bullshit.

 Computationalism says you can make matter behave intelligently if  
you organize it in certain ways,


 That is a rephrasing of computationalism, and what you say follow  
from it, but the more precise and general version is that you stay  
conscious [...]


To hell with consciousness! Figure out how intelligence works and  
then worry about consciousness.


 maybe that matter is primitive and maybe it is not but there has  
been a enormous amount of progress in recent years with AI  
demonstrating that Computationalism is probably true. There has been  
zero progress demonstrating that mathematics can behave intelligently.


 Mathematics does not belong to the category of things which can  
behave.


That is a HUGE admission on your part, if it is true (and I don't  
know if it is or not) then the debate is over and physics is more  
fundamental than mathematics.  End of story.


 But mathematics, and actually just arithmetic can define relative  
entities behaving relatively to universal number


And I can define a new integer that has never been seen before, I  
call it fluxdige and it's definition is that it's equal to 2+2 but  
it's not equal to 4. You can't make a calculation with a definition!


 Nobody has shown the existence of primitive mathematics either.

 Primitive means that we have to assume it. Logicians have prove  
that arithmetic, or universality, is primitive in the sense that you  
cannot derive arithmetic, or the existence of universal numbers,  
without assuming less than that.


When Peano came up with the integers he had to first assume that the  
number 1 existed and then he came up with rules to generate its  
successor, but if the physical universe did not exist, if there were  
ZERO things in it, then it's not at all obvious that the number 1  
would exist. Maybe it would and maybe it wouldn't, I don't know. One  
of your Greek buddies Socrates said that the first step toward  
wisdom is knowing when you don't know.  So if Socrates was right  
then I'm wiser than you are.


 Computations have been discovered in mathematics. All textbooks in  
the filed explains that.


You can't make a computation with a textbook!

 You can't make a calculation with a definition!

 You can.

Then stop talking about it and just do it!

 And if it is simple enough, you can do that mentally. You will  
tell me that in this case we still need a physical brain


Indeed I will.

 but this can be a local relative notion,

Local? A good rule of thumb is that if a theory says Local means  
the entire multiverse then things may be getting out of hand.


 I say compute means 

Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Jun 2015, at 21:03, John Clark wrote:


On Fri, Jun 5, 2015 Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Do you agree that the simulated john Clark will still complain  
that matter is missing in computation, despite we know that he  
refers to number relations, without knowing it?


If the simulation had been done correctly then the simulated John  
Clark will have the same opinions I do including reservations about  
computations being made without matter. If the simulation was being  
performed on a computer made of matter then the reservations were  
justified, if the simulation was being performed by pure mathematics  
and nothing else then they were not.


You need also the Pope to bless the matter, I think.

Bruno




  John K Clark






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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread LizR
On 8 June 2015 at 11:14, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 6/7/2015 3:00 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 8 June 2015 at 05:08, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


  On 07 Jun 2015, at 18:35, John Clark wrote:

  On Sat, Jun 6, 2015  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

An event is just a place and a time; are you saying that
 mathematics is incapable of handling 4 coordinates?


   Of course, applied mathematics exists, and you can represent event
 in mathematics, but you shopuld not confuse something (a physical event)
 and its mathematical representation.


  I am not confusing that but I think sometimes you might be confusing a
 physical thing with the language (mathematics) the descriptive
 representation of the thing is presented in. Or maybe not, maybe you're
 right and mathematics is more than just a language and is more fundamental
 than physics; nobody knows including you.

 Nobody can know. But we can reason from hypothesis. With the
 computationalist hypothesis, the immateriality of consciousness is
 contagious on the possible environment.  Nobody pretends this is obvious,
 especially for people stuck at the step 3.

   The question being asked is, why hypothesis best explains
 consciousness? Comp attempts to take the default materialist assumption,
 that consciousness is a (very, very complicated) form of computation, and
 to derive results from that assumption.

  Hence what I've called comp1 is the default materialist hypothesis (also
 known as the strong AI thesis, I think) - this is more or less equivalent
 to the idea that a computer could, given a suitable programme and
 resources, be conscious. From this Bruno attempts to show, via a chain of
 reasoning, that the computations involved have to take place in
 arithmetical reality (Platonia). This conclusion I call comp2. The task
 of anyone who disagrees is simply to show that comp2 doesn't follow from
 comp1.

  There are various ways to try to show this. One is to doubt the starting
 assumptions (comp1). The starting assumptions include the idea that
 simple arithmetic exists independently of mathematicians - that 2+2=4 was
 true in the big bang, for example.


 I think that assumes that true and exist are the same thing.  One can
 affirm that Watson was Holmes assistant without admitting that either one
 existed.  So while everyone agrees that 2+2=4 by definition, it's not so
 clear that arithmetic objects exist.

 Yes, of course it isn't clear. But 2+2=4 isn't by definition it's the
result of empirical observation of - as John wuold say - material objects.

   The universe appears to obey certain bits of methematics to high
 precision, or alternatively you could say that various bits of maths appear
 to correctly describe the behaviour of the universe and its constituents to
 high precision. So that is the which comes first? question, which as you
 correctly say we can't know (indeed we can't know anything, if know means
 justified true belief, apart from the fact that we are conscious, as
 Descartes mentioned).


 Note that Bruno rejects the conditioning on justified.  Plato's
 Theaetetus dialogue defines knowledge as true belief.  I think that's
 a deficiency in modal logic insofar as it's supposed to formalize good
 informal reasoning.  But I can see why it's done; it's difficult if not
 impossible to give formal definition of justified.

 Yes.

   So one can doubt comp1 by doubting either that consciousness is a
 computation, or that maths exists independently of mathematicians.

  Then one can doubt the steps of the argument. I personally find little
 to doubt, assuming comp1, until we reach step 7 or 8, or whichever step is
 the MGA. (There has been a lot of heat about pronouns, but as far as I can
 see this hasn't made a dent in the arguments presented.)

  So the other main point of attack is at the comp2 end, so to speak, with
 the MGA. There is Brent's light cone argument, which IMHO seems
 unconvincing because one can make a cut between a brain and the world
 along the sensory nerves - this is basically saying that a person could be
 a brain in a vat, and never know it. But it also fails if one can in theory
 have an AI, because an AI is by hyopthesis a digital machine and could
 therefore could be re-run and given the same inputs, and due to the nature
 of computation would have to repeat the same conscious experiences.


 Both of those scenarios assume that there was an external world with which
 the brain/AI was related to in the past and which provides meaning to the
 computational processes that are *ex hypothesi* now isolated from the
 world.  The relation need not even be direct, i.e. the AI was constructed
 by a programmer whose knowledge of the world provides the meaning.  But
 without some such relation it's hard to say that the computational
 processes are *about* anything, that they are not just noise.


Yes, that's the problem in a nutshell - why aren't conscious computations
just noise? (Or are 

Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Monday, June 8, 2015, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 8 June 2015 at 05:08, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
 javascript:_e(%7B%7D,'cvml','marc...@ulb.ac.be'); wrote:


 On 07 Jun 2015, at 18:35, John Clark wrote:

 On Sat, Jun 6, 2015  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
 javascript:_e(%7B%7D,'cvml','marc...@ulb.ac.be'); wrote:

  An event is just a place and a time; are you saying that mathematics
 is incapable of handling 4 coordinates?


  Of course, applied mathematics exists, and you can represent event in
 mathematics, but you shopuld not confuse something (a physical event) and
 its mathematical representation.


 I am not confusing that but I think sometimes you might be confusing a
 physical thing with the language (mathematics) the descriptive
 representation of the thing is presented in. Or maybe not, maybe you're
 right and mathematics is more than just a language and is more fundamental
 than physics; nobody knows including you.

 Nobody can know. But we can reason from hypothesis. With the
 computationalist hypothesis, the immateriality of consciousness is
 contagious on the possible environment.  Nobody pretends this is obvious,
 especially for people stuck at the step 3.

 The question being asked is, why hypothesis best explains consciousness?
 Comp attempts to take the default materialist assumption, that
 consciousness is a (very, very complicated) form of computation, and to
 derive results from that assumption.

 Hence what I've called comp1 is the default materialist hypothesis (also
 known as the strong AI thesis, I think) - this is more or less equivalent
 to the idea that a computer could, given a suitable programme and
 resources, be conscious. From this Bruno attempts to show, via a chain of
 reasoning, that the computations involved have to take place in
 arithmetical reality (Platonia). This conclusion I call comp2. The task
 of anyone who disagrees is simply to show that comp2 doesn't follow from
 comp1.

 There are various ways to try to show this. One is to doubt the starting
 assumptions (comp1). The starting assumptions include the idea that
 simple arithmetic exists independently of mathematicians - that 2+2=4 was
 true in the big bang, for example. The universe appears to obey certain
 bits of methematics to high precision, or alternatively you could say that
 various bits of maths appear to correctly describe the behaviour of the
 universe and its constituents to high precision. So that is the which
 comes first? question, which as you correctly say we can't know (indeed we
 can't know anything, if know means justified true belief, apart from the
 fact that we are conscious, as Descartes mentioned). So one can doubt comp1
 by doubting either that consciousness is a computation, or that maths
 exists independently of mathematicians.

 Then one can doubt the steps of the argument. I personally find little to
 doubt, assuming comp1, until we reach step 7 or 8, or whichever step is the
 MGA. (There has been a lot of heat about pronouns, but as far as I can see
 this hasn't made a dent in the arguments presented.)

 So the other main point of attack is at the comp2 end, so to speak, with
 the MGA. There is Brent's light cone argument, which IMHO seems
 unconvincing because one can make a cut between a brain and the world
 along the sensory nerves - this is basically saying that a person could be
 a brain in a vat, and never know it. But it also fails if one can in theory
 have an AI, because an AI is by hyopthesis a digital machine and could
 therefore could be re-run and given the same inputs, and due to the nature
 of computation would have to repeat the same conscious experiences. And
 then that description falls foul of Bruno/Maudlin's argument about leeching
 away the material support for the computation until it is turned into a
 replayed recording. At this point we can use Russell's paradox - sorry, I
 mean argument - that a recording of such complexity may indeed be
 conscious. The MGA seems to hand-wave a bit about this whole process - like
 the Chinese room, we simply record the activities of the processing
 devices and then simply' project the movie onto the system, and so on,
 leaving aside the Vast size of the envisaged apparatus. Nevertheless, if we
 assume comp1 then we assume by hypothesis that a recording isn't conscious
 (only a computation can be conscious, according to comp1).


It seems here that you've snuck an extra assumption into comp1. We know
that brains can be conscious, and we assume that computations can also be
conscious. But that doesn't mean that only computations can be conscious,
nor does it mean that brains are computations. These two latter statements
might be true, but they are not necessarily true, even given
 computationalism.


 So that's really a comp1 objection.

 So the question in the end is which is the most reasonable hypothesis. How
 does materialism explain consciousness? How does comp explain the
 appearance of a material 

Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread LizR
On 8 June 2015 at 05:08, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 07 Jun 2015, at 18:35, John Clark wrote:

 On Sat, Jun 6, 2015  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  An event is just a place and a time; are you saying that mathematics is
 incapable of handling 4 coordinates?


  Of course, applied mathematics exists, and you can represent event in
 mathematics, but you shopuld not confuse something (a physical event) and
 its mathematical representation.


 I am not confusing that but I think sometimes you might be confusing a
 physical thing with the language (mathematics) the descriptive
 representation of the thing is presented in. Or maybe not, maybe you're
 right and mathematics is more than just a language and is more fundamental
 than physics; nobody knows including you.

 Nobody can know. But we can reason from hypothesis. With the
 computationalist hypothesis, the immateriality of consciousness is
 contagious on the possible environment.  Nobody pretends this is obvious,
 especially for people stuck at the step 3.

 The question being asked is, why hypothesis best explains consciousness?
Comp attempts to take the default materialist assumption, that
consciousness is a (very, very complicated) form of computation, and to
derive results from that assumption.

Hence what I've called comp1 is the default materialist hypothesis (also
known as the strong AI thesis, I think) - this is more or less equivalent
to the idea that a computer could, given a suitable programme and
resources, be conscious. From this Bruno attempts to show, via a chain of
reasoning, that the computations involved have to take place in
arithmetical reality (Platonia). This conclusion I call comp2. The task
of anyone who disagrees is simply to show that comp2 doesn't follow from
comp1.

There are various ways to try to show this. One is to doubt the starting
assumptions (comp1). The starting assumptions include the idea that
simple arithmetic exists independently of mathematicians - that 2+2=4 was
true in the big bang, for example. The universe appears to obey certain
bits of methematics to high precision, or alternatively you could say that
various bits of maths appear to correctly describe the behaviour of the
universe and its constituents to high precision. So that is the which
comes first? question, which as you correctly say we can't know (indeed we
can't know anything, if know means justified true belief, apart from the
fact that we are conscious, as Descartes mentioned). So one can doubt comp1
by doubting either that consciousness is a computation, or that maths
exists independently of mathematicians.

Then one can doubt the steps of the argument. I personally find little to
doubt, assuming comp1, until we reach step 7 or 8, or whichever step is the
MGA. (There has been a lot of heat about pronouns, but as far as I can see
this hasn't made a dent in the arguments presented.)

So the other main point of attack is at the comp2 end, so to speak, with
the MGA. There is Brent's light cone argument, which IMHO seems
unconvincing because one can make a cut between a brain and the world
along the sensory nerves - this is basically saying that a person could be
a brain in a vat, and never know it. But it also fails if one can in theory
have an AI, because an AI is by hyopthesis a digital machine and could
therefore could be re-run and given the same inputs, and due to the nature
of computation would have to repeat the same conscious experiences. And
then that description falls foul of Bruno/Maudlin's argument about leeching
away the material support for the computation until it is turned into a
replayed recording. At this point we can use Russell's paradox - sorry, I
mean argument - that a recording of such complexity may indeed be
conscious. The MGA seems to hand-wave a bit about this whole process - like
the Chinese room, we simply record the activities of the processing
devices and then simply' project the movie onto the system, and so on,
leaving aside the Vast size of the envisaged apparatus. Nevertheless, if we
assume comp1 then we assume by hypothesis that a recording isn't conscious
(only a computation can be conscious, according to comp1). So that's really
a comp1 objection.

So the question in the end is which is the most reasonable hypothesis. How
does materialism explain consciousness? How does comp explain the
appearance of a material universe?

Over to you.

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread LizR
Must re-read my posts before sending.

That should of course be which hypothesis, not why (D'oh!)

And I seem to have too many coulds ...Oh well.

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread meekerdb

On 6/7/2015 3:00 PM, LizR wrote:

On 8 June 2015 at 05:08, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be 
mailto:marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


On 07 Jun 2015, at 18:35, John Clark wrote:

On Sat, Jun 6, 2015  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be 
mailto:marc...@ulb.ac.be
wrote:

 An event is just a place and a time; are you saying that 
mathematics is
incapable of handling 4 coordinates? 



 Of course, applied mathematics exists, and you can represent event in 
mathematics, but you
shopuld not confuse something (a physical event) and its mathematical
representation.


I am not confusing that but I think sometimes you might be confusing a 
physical
thing with the language (mathematics) the descriptive representation of the 
thing
is presented in. Or maybe not, maybe you're right and mathematics is more 
than just
a language and is more fundamental than physics; nobody knows including you.

Nobody can know. But we can reason from hypothesis. With the 
computationalist
hypothesis, the immateriality of consciousness is contagious on the possible
environment.  Nobody pretends this is obvious, especially for people stuck 
at the
step 3.

The question being asked is, why hypothesis best explains consciousness? Comp attempts 
to take the default materialist assumption, that consciousness is a (very, very 
complicated) form of computation, and to derive results from that assumption.


Hence what I've called comp1 is the default materialist hypothesis (also known as the 
strong AI thesis, I think) - this is more or less equivalent to the idea that a computer 
could, given a suitable programme and resources, be conscious. From this Bruno attempts 
to show, via a chain of reasoning, that the computations involved have to take place in 
arithmetical reality (Platonia). This conclusion I call comp2. The task of anyone who 
disagrees is simply to show that comp2 doesn't follow from comp1.


There are various ways to try to show this. One is to doubt the starting assumptions 
(comp1). The starting assumptions include the idea that simple arithmetic exists 
independently of mathematicians - that 2+2=4 was true in the big bang, for example.


I think that assumes that true and exist are the same thing. One can affirm that 
Watson was Holmes assistant without admitting that either one existed.  So while everyone 
agrees that 2+2=4 by definition, it's not so clear that arithmetic objects exist.


The universe appears to obey certain bits of methematics to high precision, or 
alternatively you could say that various bits of maths appear to correctly describe the 
behaviour of the universe and its constituents to high precision. So that is the which 
comes first? question, which as you correctly say we can't know (indeed we can't know 
anything, if know means justified true belief, apart from the fact that we are 
conscious, as Descartes mentioned).


Note that Bruno rejects the conditioning on justified.  Plato's Theaetetus dialogue 
defines knowledge as true belief.  I think that's a deficiency in modal logic insofar 
as it's supposed to formalize good informal reasoning.  But I can see why it's done; it's 
difficult if not impossible to give formal definition of justified.


So one can doubt comp1 by doubting either that consciousness is a computation, or that 
maths exists independently of mathematicians.


Then one can doubt the steps of the argument. I personally find little to doubt, 
assuming comp1, until we reach step 7 or 8, or whichever step is the MGA. (There has 
been a lot of heat about pronouns, but as far as I can see this hasn't made a dent in 
the arguments presented.)


So the other main point of attack is at the comp2 end, so to speak, with the MGA. There 
is Brent's light cone argument, which IMHO seems unconvincing because one can make a 
cut between a brain and the world along the sensory nerves - this is basically saying 
that a person could be a brain in a vat, and never know it. But it also fails if one can 
in theory have an AI, because an AI is by hyopthesis a digital machine and could 
therefore could be re-run and given the same inputs, and due to the nature of 
computation would have to repeat the same conscious experiences.


Both of those scenarios assume that there was an external world with which the brain/AI 
was related to in the past and which provides meaning to the computational processes that 
are /ex hypothesi/ now isolated from the world.  The relation need not even be direct, 
i.e. the AI was constructed by a programmer whose knowledge of the world provides the 
meaning.  But without some such relation it's hard to say that the computational processes 
are *about* anything, that they are not just noise.


And then that description falls foul of Bruno/Maudlin's argument about leeching away the 
material support for the computation until it is turned into a replayed recording. At 
this point we can use Russell's 

Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-07 Thread Bruce Kellett

LizR wrote:
On 6 June 2015 at 11:26, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au 
mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:


LizR wrote:

This is true if events have an existence apart from maths.
However, that is still being debated. Tegmark's mathematical
universe hypothesis suggests that time and events are emergent
from an underlying timeless mathematical structure.

To take something that is (hopefully) less contentious, the
block universe of special relativity already suggests something
similar to this. In relativity, all chains of events are
embedded in a space-time manifold, and hence causation comes
down to how world-lines are arranged within this structure.


This is not true. Causality is still a fundamental consideration in
SR, and that carries over into the basic structure of quantum field
theory. Even within the block universe model, the light cone
structure of spacetime is fundamental. The light cone encapsulates
the fundamental insight of SR that causal influences cannot
propagate faster than the speed of light -- the light cone is the
limiting extent of causal structure. The laws of physics consistent
with this structure in SR and beyond are have a (local) Lorentz
symmetry, which preserves the causal structure between different
Lorentz frames. The distinction between time-like and space-like
separations of events is aa fundamental tenet of physical law.

None of this contradicts what I said. All I am concerned with is that SR 
indicates that events are embedded in a 4D continuum. Describing how 
they're embedded doesn't change that.


You started with Tegmark's idea that time and events are emergent from 
an underlying timeless mathematical structure. My point was that in 
order for time to emerge from a block universe certain structure was 
necessary -- we need a 4-dim manifold with a local Lorentzian metric, 
and physical events must be arranged with a particular structure on this 
manifold -- they cannot just be arranged at haphazard. So the way events 
are embedded is in fact crucial.


The question is then whether this 4 dimensional manifold with a local 
Lorentzian metric exists in arithmetic? If not, there is no possibility 
for a time variable in arithmetic per se, and consequently nothing can 
'emerge' from arithmetic, since emergence is a temporal concept. Note 
that it is important to distinguish between structures that can be 
described mathematically and the structure of arithmetic or mathematics 
themselves.


Bruce

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread John Clark
On Sun, Jun 7, 2015  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 that is enough to conceive the set of the Gödel number of true sentences
 of arithmetic, and prove theorems about that set. That set can be defined
 in standard set theory


YOU CAN'T MAKE A COMPUTATION WITH A DEFINITION!

 Half of your theory is true but trivial, the other half is not trivial
 and not true.


  You don't know the other half. You said repeatedly that you never find
 the need to read after step 3.


Because step 3 of you proof was S-T-U-P-I-D. Fix it and I'll keep reading
until I see the next stupid thing.  .

 John K Clark





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RE: Recent methane spikes in the arctic

2015-06-07 Thread 'Chris de Morsella' via Everything List
 

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=player_embeddedv=p2ckkxEnWpA

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-07 Thread John Clark
On Sun, Jun 7, 2015 at meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


  everyone agrees that 2+2=4 by definition, it's not so clear that
 arithmetic objects exist.


If 2+2=4 exists then 2+2=5 does too. Platonia may contain all true
statements but it contains all false statement as well and even Platonia
has no way to completely separate the two. And there are many ways to be
wrong but only one way to be right.

  John K Clark

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Re: Recent methane spikes in the arctic

2015-06-07 Thread LizR
The Doomsday argument is looking increasingly realistic.

On 8 June 2015 at 14:20, 'Chris de Morsella' via Everything List 
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:





 https://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=player_embeddedv=p2ckkxEnWpA

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