Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-25 Thread 1Z


Stathis Papaioannou wrote:


 No, it won't be bored because there is no way for it to know that it is going 
 through the
 first or the second run. The point I was trying to make is that there is no 
 real basis for
 distinguishing between a recording and a program,


There is a basis for distinguishing between a programme and a process.


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-24 Thread Bruno Marchal

John,

Le 23-août-06, à 22:24, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :

 As I 'believe': anything recognized by our 'senses' are our mental 
 interpretations of the unattainable 'reality' (if we condone its 
 validity). My world is a posteriori.


This is almost my favorite way to explain Plato in one sentence.
Now with pythagorean-plato (discussed in Plato, but even more by the 
neoplatonists), the question is open that the ultimate reality is the 
reality of the numbers law. Note that after Godel-Turing-Post-Church... 
, betting on our own consistency, we know, at least, why and how such 
an ultimate reality (numbers) is forever unattainable (contrary to the 
pregodelian, leibnizian old belief that number are easy to get 
through.
I mean natural number (real numbers or complex numbers are terrible 
simplification tools, unless you define the trigonometric function 
which reintroduce the natural numbers in the real or complex 
picture.

Best regards,

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-23 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Peter Jones writes (quoting Bruno Marchal):

  People who believes that inputs (being either absolute-material or
  relative-platonical) are needed for consciousness should not believe
  that we can be conscious in a dream, given the evidence that the brain
  is almost completely cut out from the environment during rem sleep.
 
 The brain didn't evolve to dream.

Clearly the brain *did* evolve to dream, although we don't really understand 
the 
evolutionary advantage of dreaming, or for that matter sleeping. But that is 
beside the point: the question is whether interaction with an external 
environment 
is necessary for consciousness, and I think dreaming is one situation which 
shows 
that it is not.

(To be fair, one could argue that dreaming does involve environmental input in 
that 
at the very least there is proprioceptive feedback from the rapid eye 
movements, 
and there is no dreaming during non-REM sleep. However, I think that is just a 
technical detail, as it is easy enough to imagine a brain dreaming without this 
input, 
or with the input provided by self-exciting neurons.)

Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-23 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 23-août-06, à 03:58, Brent Meeker a écrit :


 People who believes that inputs (being either absolute-material or
 relative-platonical) are needed for consciousness should not believe
 that we can be conscious in a dream, given the evidence that the brain
 is almost completely cut out from the environment during rem sleep.

 Almost is not completely.

I am glad you don't insist.


  In any case, I don't think consciousness is maintained
 indefinitely with no inputs.  I think a brain-in-a-vat would go into 
 an endless
 loop without external stimulus.


OK, but for our reasoning it is enough consciousness is maintained a 
nanosecond (relatively to us).



 I
 guess they have no problem with comatose people either.

 Comatose people are generally referred to as unconscious.

? ? ?
I mean this *is* the question. In mind'sI (Dennett Hofstadter) we learn 
that a woman has been in comatose state during 50 years (if I remember 
correctly), and said she never stop to be conscious.
They are more than one form of comatose state. To say they are 
unconscious is debatable at the least. And then there is the case of 
dreams. And for those who does not like dream, what about the following 
question: take a child and enclose him/her in a box completely isolated 
from the environement. Would that fact suppress his/her consciousness?
Some parents will appreciate and feel less guilty with such ideas ...


 Of course they cannot be even just troubled by the UD, which is a
 program without inputs and without outputs.

 As I understood the UD the program itself was not conscious, but 
 rather that some
 parts are supposed to be, relative to a simulated environment.

Yes. some person attached to (infinity) of special computations, 
indeed.



 Now, without digging in the movie-graph, I would still be interested 
 if
 someone accepting standard comp (Peter's expression) could explain
 how a digital machine could correctly decide that her environment is
 real-physical.

 Decide is ambiguous.  She could very well form that hypothesis and 
 find much
 confirming and no contrary evidence.  What are you asking for?  a 
 proof from some
 axioms?  Which axioms?

Sorry, I have used the word decide in the logician sense (like in 
undecidable). To decide = to proof, or to test, or to solve, in some 
math sense.
Which axioms? Indeed, good question, that's makes my point. Well, I was 
thinking about some physical theory the someone would argue for. 
Anyone a priori.


 If such machine and reasoning exist, it will be done
 in Platonia, and, worst, assuming comp, it will be done as correctly 
 as
 the real machine argument. This would lead to the fact that in
 Platonia, there are (many) immaterial machines proving *correctly* 
 that
 they are immaterial. Contradiction.

 Suppose a physical machine implements computation and proves relative 
 to some axioms
 that physical machines don't exist.  Contradiction?

If by physical you mean what Peter Jones means, then indeed the 
physical machine is in contradiction. This means that her axioms are 
indeed contradictory. If moreover, the physical machine gives a 
correct proof, as as I say in the quotes, then we get a total 
contradiction, like a proof that PI is an integer, for example. That we 
are in contradiction.
As far as we are consistent, this just means that no X-machine can 
correctly proof that X-machine does not exist.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-23 Thread Brent Meeker

Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Brent Meeker writes:
 
 
Almost is not completely.  In any case, I don't think consciousness is 
maintained 
indefinitely with no inputs.  I think a brain-in-a-vat would go into an 
endless 
loop without external stimulus.
 
 
 That's an assumption, 

No, it has empirical support. It is what is reported by people in extended 
sensory 
deprivation experiments.

but even if true it would only say something about the 
 nature of human brains. It is easy enough to imagine a brain with 
 self-excitatory 
 neurons that provide the same kind of input as the environment does, 
 modulating
 their activity in response to feedback from other neurons. It would just be a 
 technical problem to ensure that it didn't go into an endless loop.

Without inherent (quantum) randomness?  I don't think so.  Close deterministic 
systems have a Poincare return time.

Brent Meeker


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-23 Thread jamikes



Bruno:

why do I have difficulties to go along 
with many of you?
E.g. when you wrote (and not you brought 
up the ominous "axiom"):
"...Which axioms? Indeed, good 
question, that's makes my point. Well, I was thinking about some physical 
theory the "someone" would argue for. Anyone a 
priori."
I dislike 'axioms', but do not trust my 
dislike, so I looked up Wikipedia's definition to have something to argue 
against G. It said:

An axiom is a sentence or proposition that is taken for granted as 
true, and serves as a starting point for deducing other truths. In many usage 
axiom and postulate are 
used as synonyms.
In certain epistemological 
theories, an axiom is a self-evident 
truth upon which other knowledge must rest, and from which other knowledge is 
built up. An axiom in this sense can be known before one knows any of these 
other propostions. Not all epistemologists 
agree that any axioms, understood in that sense, exist.
In logic and mathematics, an 
axiom is not necessarily a self-evident truth, but rather a formal 
logical _expression_ used in a deduction to yield further results. To 
axiomatize a system of knowledge is to show that all of its claims can be 
derived from a small set of sentences that are independent of one another. This 
does not imply that they could have been known independently; and there are 
typically multiple ways to axiomatize a given system of knowledge (such as 
arithmetic). 
Mathematics distinguishes two types of axioms: logical 
axioms and non-logical 
axioms. 
It speaks for itself. "We" (not you and me) create axioms to make 'our' 
theories work. Then we consider the 'system' in question based on such axioms. I 
try to scrutinize them, to find alternates and scrutinize those also. 
The other one is an 'a priori (physical?) theory' - sounds in physics similar 
to 'your' numbers which you may consider 'a priori' existing. If I may ask: what 
'natural' senses may detect numbers? Unless. of course, you consider our mind a 
'natural sense' (what may be true). As I 'believe': anything recognized by 
our 'senses' are our mental interpretations of the unattainable 'reality' (if we 
condone its validity). "My world" is a posteriori.
Cheerz
John M

- Original Message - 

From: "Bruno Marchal" 
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Wednesday, August 23, 2006 10:31 
AM
Subject: Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: 
ROADMAP (well, not yet really...
Le 23-août-06, à 03:58, Brent Meeker a écrit 
: People who believes that inputs (being either 
absolute-material or relative-platonical) are needed for 
consciousness should not believe that we can be conscious in a 
dream, given the evidence that the brain is almost completely cut 
out from the environment during rem sleep. Almost is not 
completely.I am glad you don't insist. In any 
case, I don't think consciousness is maintained indefinitely with no 
inputs. I think a "brain-in-a-vat" would go into  an 
endless loop without external stimulus.OK, but for our 
reasoning it is enough consciousness is maintained a nanosecond (relatively 
to us). I guess they have no problem 
with comatose people either. Comatose people are generally 
referred to as "unconscious".? ? ?I mean this *is* the question. In 
mind'sI (Dennett Hofstadter) we learn that a woman has been in comatose 
state during 50 years (if I remember correctly), and said she never stop to 
be conscious.They are more than one form of comatose state. To say they are 
"unconscious" is debatable at the least. And then there is the case of 
dreams. And for those who does not like dream, what about the following 
question: take a child and enclose him/her in a box completely isolated 
from the environement. Would that fact suppress his/her 
consciousness?Some parents will appreciate and feel less guilty with such 
ideas ... Of course they cannot be even just troubled by 
the UD, which is a program without inputs and without 
outputs. As I understood the UD the program itself was not 
conscious, but  rather that some parts are supposed to be, 
relative to a simulated environment.Yes. some "person" attached to 
(infinity) of special computations, indeed. 
Now, without digging in the movie-graph, I would still be interested 
 if someone accepting "standard comp" (Peter's 
_expression_) could explain how a digital machine could correctly 
decide that her environment is "real-physical". 
"Decide" is ambiguous. She could very well form that hypothesis and 
 find much confirming and no contrary evidence. What are 
you asking for? a  proof from some axioms? Which 
axioms?Sorry, I have used the word "decide" in the logician sense (like 
in undecidable). To decide = to proof, or to test, or to solve, in some 
math sense.Which axioms? Indeed, good question, that's makes my point. 
Well, I was thinking about some physical the

RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-22 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Brent meeker writes (quoting Peter Jones, Quentin Anciaux and SP):

 Hi,
 
 Le Dimanche 20 Août 2006 05:17, Stathis Papaioannou a écrit :
 
 Peter Jones writes (quoting SP):
 
 What about an inputless computer program, running deterministically
 like a recording. Would that count as a program at all,
 
 It would be a trivial case.
 
 Trivial does not mean false.
 
 It seems to me that the set of inputless programs contains the set of 
 programs 
 which have inputs. Because a program which have inputs could be written as 
 the following inputless program :
 
 |HARDCODED INPUT||CODE|
 
 The resulting program is input less but the substructure denominated CODE 
 here is not inputless, it takes the hardcoded input.
 
 So in any case I don't see why inputless program should be trivial case.
 
 Regards,
 Quentin
 
 I thought the question was not about computation, but whether a program was 
 intelligent or conscious.  I think that intelligence means being able to 
 respond to a 
 variety of differenet inputs.  So above |CODE| might be intelligent but not 
 the 
 overall inputless program.

OK, I suppose you could say I'm intelligent but not I + my environment are 
intelligent. 
That still allows that an inputless program might contain intelligent beings, 
and you are left 
with the problem of how to decide whether a physical system is implementing 
such a program 
given that you can't talk to it.

Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 22-août-06, à 15:26, Stathis Papaioannou a écrit :

 OK, I suppose you could say I'm intelligent but not I + my 
 environment are intelligent.
 That still allows that an inputless program might contain intelligent 
 beings, and you are left
 with the problem of how to decide whether a physical system is 
 implementing such a program
 given that you can't talk to it.


People who believes that inputs (being either absolute-material or 
relative-platonical) are needed for consciousness should not believe 
that we can be conscious in a dream, given the evidence that the brain 
is almost completely cut out from the environment during rem sleep. I 
guess they have no problem with comatose people either.
Of course they cannot be even just troubled by the UD, which is a 
program without inputs and without outputs.

Now, without digging in the movie-graph, I would still be interested if 
someone accepting standard comp (Peter's expression) could explain 
how a digital machine could correctly decide that her environment is 
real-physical. If such machine and reasoning exist, it will be done 
in Platonia, and, worst, assuming comp, it will be done as correctly as 
the real machine argument. This would lead to the fact that in 
Platonia, there are (many) immaterial machines proving *correctly* that 
they are immaterial. Contradiction.

Remark: the key idea which is used here is that not only programs 
belong to Platonia, but their relative computations also. It is 
important to keep the distinction between (static) programs and their 
dynamical computations. I will write Fi, as the function computed by 
the ith programs in some universal enumeration of partial recursive 
functions (like an infinite list of fortran programs, say). I will 
write Fi(x) for the value of that function with input x, if that value 
exists. I will write sFi(x) the s-trace of that program (with input 
x), where the trace stops after the sth steps in the relative run of 
Fi(x). The trace is computer scientist name for a description of the 
computational steps---it can be shown that such computational steps can 
always be defined for the Fi and Wi.
I will define a (3-PERSON) computation of Fi(x) as being the sequence 
1Fi(x), 2Fi(x), 3Fi(x), etc ...
This is well defined relatively to some universal number or code. In 
this sense, computations belong to Platonia. The reason why I feel 
myself here and now can then be reduced to the relative 1-person comp 
indeterminacy a-la Washington/Moscow. Note that the adjective 
relative is capital here. Without it, the indexical conception of 
time (and space) would not work.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-22 Thread 1Z


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 Le 22-août-06, à 15:26, Stathis Papaioannou a écrit :

  OK, I suppose you could say I'm intelligent but not I + my
  environment are intelligent.
  That still allows that an inputless program might contain intelligent
  beings, and you are left
  with the problem of how to decide whether a physical system is
  implementing such a program
  given that you can't talk to it.


 People who believes that inputs (being either absolute-material or
 relative-platonical) are needed for consciousness should not believe
 that we can be conscious in a dream, given the evidence that the brain
 is almost completely cut out from the environment during rem sleep.

The brain didn't evolve to dream.

 I
 guess they have no problem with comatose people either.
 Of course they cannot be even just troubled by the UD, which is a
 program without inputs and without outputs.

 Now, without digging in the movie-graph, I would still be interested if
 someone accepting standard comp (Peter's expression) could explain
 how a digital machine could correctly decide that her environment is
 real-physical.

A *person* can decide their enviroment is *uncomputable*.

If classical physics had been true, the environment would
have been uncomputable.

 If such machine and reasoning exist, it will be done
 in Platonia, and, worst, assuming comp, it will be done as correctly as
 the real machine argument. This would lead to the fact that in
 Platonia, there are (many) immaterial machines proving *correctly* that
 they are immaterial. Contradiction.

If the mind is a computation, its errors are computations
as well. Platonia wil contain every mathematical possibility --
every combination of mind and environment.
Competent minds correctly judging their environments are computable,
competent minds correctly judging their environments are uncomputable,
incompetent minds incorrectly judging their environments are
uncomputable,  incompetent minds incorrectly judging their environments
are computable.


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-22 Thread Brent Meeker

Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 Le 22-août-06, à 15:26, Stathis Papaioannou a écrit :
 
 
OK, I suppose you could say I'm intelligent but not I + my 
environment are intelligent.
That still allows that an inputless program might contain intelligent 
beings, and you are left
with the problem of how to decide whether a physical system is 
implementing such a program
given that you can't talk to it.
 
 
 
 People who believes that inputs (being either absolute-material or 
 relative-platonical) are needed for consciousness should not believe 
 that we can be conscious in a dream, given the evidence that the brain 
 is almost completely cut out from the environment during rem sleep. 

Almost is not completely.  In any case, I don't think consciousness is 
maintained 
indefinitely with no inputs.  I think a brain-in-a-vat would go into an 
endless 
loop without external stimulus.

I 
 guess they have no problem with comatose people either.

Comatose people are generally referred to as unconscious.

 Of course they cannot be even just troubled by the UD, which is a 
 program without inputs and without outputs.

As I understood the UD the program itself was not conscious, but rather that 
some 
parts are supposed to be, relative to a simulated environment.

 
 Now, without digging in the movie-graph, I would still be interested if 
 someone accepting standard comp (Peter's expression) could explain 
 how a digital machine could correctly decide that her environment is 
 real-physical. 

Decide is ambiguous.  She could very well form that hypothesis and find much 
confirming and no contrary evidence.  What are you asking for?  a proof from 
some 
axioms?  Which axioms?

If such machine and reasoning exist, it will be done 
 in Platonia, and, worst, assuming comp, it will be done as correctly as 
 the real machine argument. This would lead to the fact that in 
 Platonia, there are (many) immaterial machines proving *correctly* that 
 they are immaterial. Contradiction.

Suppose a physical machine implements computation and proves relative to some 
axioms 
that physical machines don't exist.  Contradiction?

Brent Meeker


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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-22 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Brent Meeker writes (quoting SP):

  You might say that a computer program has a two-way interaction with its
  environment while a recording does not, but it is easy to imagine a 
  situation
  where this can be perfectly reproduced by a recording. In run no. 1, you 
  start up
  the computer program and have a conversation with it. In run no. 2 you 
  start up
  the computer program and play it the recording of your voice from run no. 
  1. As
  far as the program is aware, it receives exactly the same inputs and goes 
  through
  exactly the same responses on both runs, but one is a recording and the 
  other is
  not. Run no. 2 is exactly analogous to a film: a fixed input resulting in a 
  fixed
  output, even though if the input had been different the output would also 
  have
  been different. I don't see how you could say that the computer is 
  conscious in
  run no. 1 but not in run no. 2.
 
 If the program is intelligent it'll be bored by 2. :-)  You seem to mixing 
 questions 
 of discovering whether a program is intelligent, with what it means for it to 
 be 
 intelligent.

No, it won't be bored because there is no way for it to know that it is going 
through the 
first or the second run. The point I was trying to make is that there is no 
real basis for 
distinguishing between a recording and a program, and hence no basis for saying 
that 
a program can be intelligent or conscious and a recording cannot. A corrolary 
to this is 
that there can be no real distinction between program and data, or computer and 
environment: they are just artificially segregated parts within a larger 
system. This 
means that in general it is not possible to say whether a physical system is or 
isn't 
implementing a computation, because the usual test of whether it handles 
counterfactuals 
will not necessarily work. This would be a trivial result *unless* we say that 
a computation 
can be conscious, in which case self-contained universes of conscious beings 
are hidden 
all around us. To avoid this conclusion you either have to drop 
computationalism or drop 
the idea that consciousness supervenes on physical activity.

Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-21 Thread 1Z


Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Peter Jones writes:

  Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
   Peter Jones writes:
  
 Is it possible that we are currently actors in a single, 
 deterministic, non-branching
 computer program, with the illusion of free will and if-then 
 contingency in general
 being due to the fact that we don't know the details of how the 
 program will play
 out?
   
Lots of things are possible. The question is what to believe.
  
   True, but I thought you were saying that such a thing was incompatible 
   with consciousness,
   and I see no reason to believe that.
 
  There are a lot of prolems with what you are saying.
 
  I don't think it is possible to get dynamism out of stasis,
  and I don't think it is possible to get qualia out of mathematical
  structues

 But what about a physical computer which creates an entire virtual 
 environment, complete
 with sentient beings? Once started up it would be completely deterministic, 
 just as a recording
 would be. It could have if-then statements but these would not make any 
 difference, given initial
 conditions.

  (A recording also has if-then statements, in that if the input were 
 different, the
 output would also be different.)


 This could as easily be a real model of a classical universe, with
 no interference from outside once initial conditions + laws of physics had 
 been set. The if-then
 statements are implicit in the laws of physics: if I throw a rock, it will 
 follow a parabolic trajectory
 and shatter the window.

Yes, that is my point. Computationalsim requires
processes that implement algorithms, algorithms require
counterfactuals, counterfactuals are underpinned by
physical causality.

But all you can have in Plato's heaven is a recording that
doesn't have counterfactual behaviour, or a programme (as opposed
to a process) that isn't implemented.

  As an inhabitant of the univerese I think I have free will in deciding 
 whether
 or not to throw the rock, but in fact this is no more indeterminate than the 
 workings of a clockwork
 mechanism.

Assuming the universe is detrerministic. (Actually,
classical physics isn't computable...)

 My understanding is that standard computationalism allows for consciousness 
 to occur
 in such a universe, even if it isn't the universe we actually live in.

And such a universe could be emulated
as a running, deterministic process. But
that won't get you into Plato's heaven,
because it is a *running* process -- it is still
dynamic. A recording of the process could
exist in Plato's heaven, but it wouldn't have
all the counterfactuals, so the computationalist
is not required to believe that it contains
any real sentience -- the simulated
beings in it would have no more
consciousness of their own than the characters in a movie!

Likewise, the computationalist is not
required
to believe that an unexecuted programme is sentient
(even though it has, theoretically, the counterfactuals).

No-one would believe that a brain-scan, however detailed,
is conscious, so  not computationalist, however ardent,
is required to believe that a progamme gathering udston a shelf
is sentient, however good a piece of AI code it is.

If not, then you have to abandon
 computationalism and embrace something like Penrose's theory in which 
 essentially non-computable
 quantum effects are responsible for consciousness; or maybe we've just all 
 been issued with a soul
 by God.

Standard computationalism refers to real, physical processes
running on material computers. You have to show
that the causality and dynamism are inessential
(that there is no relevant difference between process and programme)
before you can have consciousness implemented Platonically.

(No *special* kind of physics is required).

 Stathis Papaioannou


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-21 Thread Brent Meeker

Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 
 Right!
 
 
 
 
 
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...
Date: Sun, 20 Aug 2006 10:18:18 +0200


Hi,

Le Dimanche 20 Août 2006 05:17, Stathis Papaioannou a écrit :

Peter Jones writes (quoting SP):

What about an inputless computer program, running deterministically
like a recording. Would that count as a program at all,

It would be a trivial case.

Trivial does not mean false.

It seems to me that the set of inputless programs contains the set of 
programs 
which have inputs. Because a program which have inputs could be written as 
the following inputless program :

|HARDCODED INPUT||CODE|

The resulting program is input less but the substructure denominated CODE 
here is not inputless, it takes the hardcoded input.

So in any case I don't see why inputless program should be trivial case.

Regards,
Quentin

I thought the question was not about computation, but whether a program was 
intelligent or conscious.  I think that intelligence means being able to 
respond to a 
variety of differenet inputs.  So above |CODE| might be intelligent but not the 
overall inputless program.

Brent Meeker

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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-21 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Peter Jones writes:

 And such a universe could be emulated
 as a running, deterministic process. But
 that won't get you into Plato's heaven,
 because it is a *running* process -- it is still
 dynamic. A recording of the process could
 exist in Plato's heaven, but it wouldn't have
 all the counterfactuals, so the computationalist
 is not required to believe that it contains
 any real sentience -- the simulated
 beings in it would have no more
 consciousness of their own than the characters in a movie!
 
 Likewise, the computationalist is not
 required
 to believe that an unexecuted programme is sentient
 (even though it has, theoretically, the counterfactuals).
 
 No-one would believe that a brain-scan, however detailed,
 is conscious, so  not computationalist, however ardent,
 is required to believe that a progamme gathering udston a shelf
 is sentient, however good a piece of AI code it is.

Leave aside for the moment the computer running in Platonia and consider a real 
computer. You say that a computer program is defined in part by its ability to 
handle counterfactuals, distinguishing it from a mere recording, but it is this 
distinction with which I have difficulties. The characters in a film are not 
conscious because the film only simulates external appearance, not because it 
lacks if-then statements. A film obviously does handle if-then statements, 
because if the patterns on the film are different the projection on the screen 
would also be different. A computer program basically does the same thing: it 
consistently produces a certain output for a certain input. In the MWI of QM a 
computer program or human mind may have more luxuriant branchings than a 
recording, but that is just a matter of degree, and in any case there is no 
reason to suppose that a program is any less valid or less conscious because of 
the presence or absence of near-copies segregated in parallel universes. In the 
CI of QM it would be possible to introduce true randomness into a computer 
program but the same could be done for a recording, and again there is no 
reason to suppose that a program is any less valid or less conscious because it 
isn't random. Randomness and/or parallel processes are not a prerequisite for a 
classical computer to function.

You might say that a computer program has a two-way interaction with its 
environment while a recording does not, but it is easy to imagine a situation 
where this can be perfectly reproduced by a recording. In run no. 1, you start 
up the computer program and have a conversation with it. In run no. 2 you start 
up the computer program and play it the recording of your voice from run no. 1. 
As far as the program is aware, it receives exactly the same inputs and goes 
through exactly the same responses on both runs, but one is a recording and the 
other is not. Run no. 2 is exactly analogous to a film: a fixed input resulting 
in a fixed output, even though if the input had been different the output would 
also have been different. I don't see how you could say that the computer is 
conscious in run no. 1 but not in run no. 2.

Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-21 Thread Brent Meeker

Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Peter Jones writes:
 
 
 And such a universe could be emulated as a running, deterministic process. 
 But 
 that won't get you into Plato's heaven, because it is a *running* process -- 
 it
 is still dynamic. A recording of the process could exist in Plato's heaven, 
 but
 it wouldn't have all the counterfactuals, so the computationalist is not
 required to believe that it contains any real sentience -- the simulated 
 beings
 in it would have no more consciousness of their own than the characters in a
 movie!
 
 Likewise, the computationalist is not required to believe that an unexecuted
 programme is sentient (even though it has, theoretically, the 
 counterfactuals).
 
 No-one would believe that a brain-scan, however detailed, is conscious, so  
 not
 computationalist, however ardent, is required to believe that a progamme
 gathering udston a shelf is sentient, however good a piece of AI code it is.
 
 
 Leave aside for the moment the computer running in Platonia and consider a 
 real
 computer. You say that a computer program is defined in part by its ability to
 handle counterfactuals, distinguishing it from a mere recording, but it is 
 this
 distinction with which I have difficulties. The characters in a film are not
 conscious because the film only simulates external appearance, not because it
 lacks if-then statements. A film obviously does handle if-then statements, 
 because
 if the patterns on the film are different the projection on the screen would 
 also
 be different. 

That's not a proper example though.  It would imply to a rock - it would be 
different 
if it weren't a rock.  To be intelligent (much less conscious) the if-then must 
be 
inresponse to different environmental inputs.

A computer program basically does the same thing: it consistently
 produces a certain output for a certain input. 

That's why you can't tell whether a program is intelligent by giving it a 
certain 
input.  There must be a variety of inputs and the response will in general be 
different depending on their order (smart programs have memory).

In the MWI of QM a computer program
 or human mind may have more luxuriant branchings than a recording, 

This seems to reify the branches as part of the program.  They are part of the 
*process of running* the program.  The branches arise from different inputs.

but that is
 just a matter of degree, and in any case there is no reason to suppose that a
 program is any less valid or less conscious because of the presence or 
 absence of
 near-copies segregated in parallel universes. In the CI of QM it would be 
 possible
 to introduce true randomness into a computer program but the same could be 
 done
 for a recording, and again there is no reason to suppose that a program is any
 less valid or less conscious because it isn't random. Randomness and/or 
 parallel
 processes are not a prerequisite for a classical computer to function.

I agree with that.

 You might say that a computer program has a two-way interaction with its
 environment while a recording does not, but it is easy to imagine a situation
 where this can be perfectly reproduced by a recording. In run no. 1, you 
 start up
 the computer program and have a conversation with it. In run no. 2 you start 
 up
 the computer program and play it the recording of your voice from run no. 1. 
 As
 far as the program is aware, it receives exactly the same inputs and goes 
 through
 exactly the same responses on both runs, but one is a recording and the other 
 is
 not. Run no. 2 is exactly analogous to a film: a fixed input resulting in a 
 fixed
 output, even though if the input had been different the output would also have
 been different. I don't see how you could say that the computer is conscious 
 in
 run no. 1 but not in run no. 2.

If the program is intelligent it'll be bored by 2. :-)  You seem to mixing 
questions 
of discovering whether a program is intelligent, with what it means for it to 
be 
intelligent.

Brent Meeker


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-20 Thread Quentin Anciaux

Hi,

Le Dimanche 20 Août 2006 05:17, Stathis Papaioannou a écrit :
 Peter Jones writes (quoting SP):
   What about an inputless computer program, running deterministically
   like a recording. Would that count as a program at all,
 
  It would be a trivial case.

 Trivial does not mean false.

It seems to me that the set of inputless programs contains the set of programs 
which have inputs. Because a program which have inputs could be written as 
the following inputless program :

|HARDCODED INPUT||CODE|

The resulting program is input less but the substructure denominated CODE 
here is not inputless, it takes the hardcoded input.

So in any case I don't see why inputless program should be trivial case.

Regards,
Quentin

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-20 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 19-août-06, à 15:36, Günther wrote:

 The existence of numbers is not like the existence of objects, and I 
 don't
 think that most mathematical Platonists would say that it is.

I agree with them. We have to distinguish many forms of internal  or 
epistemological existence, build from the simplest conceptual third 
person ontological commitments.
Comp necessitates the numbers for the ontic part, and the rest 
emerges as coherent overlapping set of of computations (quotientized 
through some undistinguishability first person equivalence relation).
To be short.

Bruno



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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-20 Thread 1Z


Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Peter Jones writes:

   Is it possible that we are currently actors in a single, deterministic, 
   non-branching
   computer program, with the illusion of free will and if-then contingency 
   in general
   being due to the fact that we don't know the details of how the program 
   will play
   out?
 
  Lots of things are possible. The question is what to believe.

 True, but I thought you were saying that such a thing was incompatible with 
 consciousness,
 and I see no reason to believe that.

There are a lot of prolems with what you are saying.

I don't think it is possible to get dynamism out of stasis,
and I don't think it is possible to get qualia out of mathematical
structues

Oh, and Non-branching programme is close to being a cotnradiction in
terms.

You could replace computer program with machine
 and have a description of the universe.

Really ? What would machine mean in that sentence ?
And according to which theory of physics ?

 Actually, you could leave out non-branching as well:
 the MWI is branching but deterministic, and still leaves room for first 
 person indeterminacy.

There are problems with MWI as a purely physical theory.

 Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-20 Thread 1Z


Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 Hi,

 Le Dimanche 20 Août 2006 05:17, Stathis Papaioannou a écrit :
  Peter Jones writes (quoting SP):
What about an inputless computer program, running deterministically
like a recording. Would that count as a program at all,
  
   It would be a trivial case.
 
  Trivial does not mean false.

 It seems to me that the set of inputless programs contains the set of programs
 which have inputs. Because a program which have inputs could be written as
 the following inputless program :

 |HARDCODED INPUT||CODE|

Which could be further simplified into

|HARCODED OUTPUT|

But not most people would call that data, not programme.

(in any case, this kind of one-shot progamme is not a good
model of mind. A mind is more like a fuzzy-logic real-time system).


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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-20 Thread Stathis Papaioannou


Right!




 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Subject: Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...
 Date: Sun, 20 Aug 2006 10:18:18 +0200
 
 
 Hi,
 
 Le Dimanche 20 Août 2006 05:17, Stathis Papaioannou a écrit :
  Peter Jones writes (quoting SP):
What about an inputless computer program, running deterministically
like a recording. Would that count as a program at all,
  
   It would be a trivial case.
 
  Trivial does not mean false.
 
 It seems to me that the set of inputless programs contains the set of 
 programs 
 which have inputs. Because a program which have inputs could be written as 
 the following inputless program :
 
 |HARDCODED INPUT||CODE|
 
 The resulting program is input less but the substructure denominated CODE 
 here is not inputless, it takes the hardcoded input.
 
 So in any case I don't see why inputless program should be trivial case.
 
 Regards,
 Quentin
 
  

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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-20 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Peter Jones writes:

 Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
  Peter Jones writes:
 
Is it possible that we are currently actors in a single, deterministic, 
non-branching
computer program, with the illusion of free will and if-then 
contingency in general
being due to the fact that we don't know the details of how the program 
will play
out?
  
   Lots of things are possible. The question is what to believe.
 
  True, but I thought you were saying that such a thing was incompatible with 
  consciousness,
  and I see no reason to believe that.
 
 There are a lot of prolems with what you are saying.
 
 I don't think it is possible to get dynamism out of stasis,
 and I don't think it is possible to get qualia out of mathematical
 structues

But what about a physical computer which creates an entire virtual environment, 
complete 
with sentient beings? Once started up it would be completely deterministic, 
just as a recording 
would be. It could have if-then statements but these would not make any 
difference, given initial 
conditions. (A recording also has if-then statements, in that if the input were 
different, the 
output would also be different.) This could as easily be a real model of a 
classical universe, with 
no interference from outside once initial conditions + laws of physics had been 
set. The if-then 
statements are implicit in the laws of physics: if I throw a rock, it will 
follow a parabolic trajectory 
and shatter the window. As an inhabitant of the univerese I think I have free 
will in deciding whether 
or not to throw the rock, but in fact this is no more indeterminate than the 
workings of a clockwork 
mechanism. My understanding is that standard computationalism allows for 
consciousness to occur 
in such a universe, even if it isn't the universe we actually live in. If not, 
then you have to abandon 
computationalism and embrace something like Penrose's theory in which 
essentially non-computable 
quantum effects are responsible for consciousness; or maybe we've just all been 
issued with a soul 
by God.

Stathis Papaioannou


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread Brent Meeker

Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Brent Meeker writes:
 
 
Even if you say that, there is still a sense in which arithmetic is 
independent of the 
real world. The same can be said of Euclidian geometry: it follows from 
Euclid's axioms 
*despite* the fact that real space is not Euclidian. The fact that real 
space is not 
Euclidian means that Euclidian geometry does not describe the real world, 
not that 
it is false or non-existent.

Stathis Papaioannou

But the fact that a theorem is true relative to some axioms doesn't make it 
true 
or existent.  Some mathematicians I know regard it as a game.  Is true that a 
bishop can only move diagonally?  It is relative to chess.  Does chess exist? 
It does in our heads.  But without us it wouldn't.
 
 
 What more could we possibly ask of a theorem other than that it be true 
 relative to some 
 axioms? That a theorem should describe some aspect of the real world, or that 
 it should 
 be discovered by some mathematician, is contingent on the nature of the real 
 world, but that 
 it is true is not.

That it is a true description of the real world, or that it is a true theorem 
relative to the axioms.  It is a mistake to conflate the two, which I suspect 
is 
done by people claiming mathematical theorems are true.

Brent Meeker

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread Brent Meeker

Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Brent Meeker writes:
 
 
Even if you say that, there is still a sense in which arithmetic is 
independent of the 
real world. The same can be said of Euclidian geometry: it follows from 
Euclid's axioms 
*despite* the fact that real space is not Euclidian. The fact that real 
space is not 
Euclidian means that Euclidian geometry does not describe the real world, 
not that 
it is false or non-existent.

Stathis Papaioannou

But the fact that a theorem is true relative to some axioms doesn't make it 
true 
or existent.  Some mathematicians I know regard it as a game.  Is true that a 
bishop can only move diagonally?  It is relative to chess.  Does chess exist? 
It does in our heads.  But without us it wouldn't.
 
 
 What more could we possibly ask of a theorem other than that it be true 
 relative to some 
 axioms? That a theorem should describe some aspect of the real world, or that 
 it should 
 be discovered by some mathematician, is contingent on the nature of the real 
 world, but that 
 it is true is not.

That it is a true description of the real world, or that it is a true theorem 
relative to the axioms?  It is a mistake to conflate the two, which I suspect 
is 
done by people claiming mathematical theorems are true.

Brent Meeker

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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Brent Meeker writes (quoting SP):

 But the fact that a theorem is true relative to some axioms doesn't make it 
 true 
 or existent.  Some mathematicians I know regard it as a game.  Is true that 
 a 
 bishop can only move diagonally?  It is relative to chess.  Does chess 
 exist? 
 It does in our heads.  But without us it wouldn't.
  
  
  What more could we possibly ask of a theorem other than that it be true 
  relative to some 
  axioms? That a theorem should describe some aspect of the real world, or 
  that it should 
  be discovered by some mathematician, is contingent on the nature of the 
  real world, but that 
  it is true is not.
 
 That it is a true description of the real world, or that it is a true theorem 
 relative to the axioms.  It is a mistake to conflate the two, which I suspect 
 is 
 done by people claiming mathematical theorems are true.

OK then, I agree. The two should not be conflated.

Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 19-août-06, à 08:48, Brent Meeker wrote quoting Stathis Papaioannou


 What more could we possibly ask of a theorem other than that it be 
 true relative to some
 axioms? That a theorem should describe some aspect of the real world, 
 or that it should
 be discovered by some mathematician, is contingent on the nature of 
 the real world, but that
 it is true is not.

 That it is a true description of the real world, or that it is a true 
 theorem
 relative to the axioms.  It is a mistake to conflate the two, which I 
 suspect is
 done by people claiming mathematical theorems are true.


No. It is done by people claiming true mathematical propositions are 
theorem.

Robinson Arithmetic (Q or RA) and Peano Arithmetic (PA), which in our 
context are better seen as a (mathematical) *machines*, are SOUND with 
respect to the so-called (by logicians) standard model of arithmetic, 
which is the mathematical structure (N,+,*) given by the non negative 
integers N together with addition and multiplication (learned in high 
school).
Now RA and all its consistent extensions (and thus PA, ZF, ...) are 
INCOMPLETE with respect to that mathematical structure (N,+,*), in the 
sense that for any of those theories there exist always infinitely many 
true propositions, true meaning really: satisfied by (N,+,*) which 
are unprovable by those theories.
There is no complete TOE for the standard additive and multiplicative 
behavior of the natural numbers.
But there is nothing wrong asserting that a theorem of PA is true 
(always with that meaning of being statisfied in (N,+,*)), because 
nobody (serious) doubt the axioms of PA, or doubt truth couldn't be 
preserved by the modus ponens inference rule or by the quantifier rules 
(and thus nobody doubts in the theorems proved by PA).

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 18-août-06, à 17:02, 1Z a écrit :

 It is for Pythagorenas and Platonists to explain what they mean by
 exist.

 However, if you are going to claim that we are actually *in* Platonia,
 (mathematical monism) there must be some equivalence between the
 existence we
 have and the existence numbers have.



Of course! But that is what I am currently explaining. If you have 
follow the UDA, then, even if you could not yet be completely convinced 
by each steps, you should at least be able to figure out in which sense 
you, here and now, in the shape of an OM, to borrow the list 
vocabulary, exist as a relative number. Third personally you exist in 
aleph-zero relative number form (like snapshots of a running program). 
First personally you exist in the same shape (although you cannot know 
that) but you are multiplied by a continuum: the computational 
histories generated by the UD, in the mathematical sense, going through 
those third person states.

Bruno



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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 18-août-06, à 17:38, 1Z a écrit :

 That is an explanation of mind-independence, not of  existence.
 The anti-Platonist (e.g. the formalist) can claim that
 the truth of mathematical statments is mind-independent,
 but their existence isn't.


Their existence ? Mathematical statements needs chatty machines. 
Mathematical truth, a priori doesn't (although free structures can 
feature some chatty aspects many times).

Let us make the following convention. When I will say I believe there 
exist a perfect number, it is a shorter expression for, I believe the 
proposition There is a perfect number is true (satisfied in (N,+,*)) 
independently of me, or of any theory of cognition. (A good thing, 
giving that a theory of cognition is build *from* digital machine, that 
is from number theoretical relations).

Bruno


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread 1Z


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 Le 18-août-06, à 17:38, 1Z a écrit :

  That is an explanation of mind-independence, not of  existence.
  The anti-Platonist (e.g. the formalist) can claim that
  the truth of mathematical statments is mind-independent,
  but their existence isn't.


 Their existence ? Mathematical statements needs chatty machines.

Mathematics proceded for centuries without any machines at all.

 Mathematical truth, a priori doesn't (although free structures can
 feature some chatty aspects many times).

 Let us make the following convention. When I will say I believe there
 exist a perfect number, it is a shorter expression for, I believe the
 proposition There is a perfect number is true (satisfied in (N,+,*))
 independently of me, or of any theory of cognition. (A good thing,
 giving that a theory of cognition is build *from* digital machine, that
 is from number theoretical relations).

If AR makes no existential commitments, it cannot lead
to the existential conclusion that there is no such thing
as matter.

 Bruno
 
 
 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread 1Z


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 Le 18-août-06, à 17:02, 1Z a écrit :

  It is for Pythagorenas and Platonists to explain what they mean by
  exist.
 
  However, if you are going to claim that we are actually *in* Platonia,
  (mathematical monism) there must be some equivalence between the
  existence we
  have and the existence numbers have.



 Of course! But that is what I am currently explaining. If you have
 follow the UDA, then, even if you could not yet be completely convinced
 by each steps, you should at least be able to figure out in which sense
 you, here and now, in the shape of an OM, to borrow the list
 vocabulary, exist as a relative number.


I cna't be persuaded of that without first being
persuaded that numbers exist.

 Third personally you exist in
 aleph-zero relative number form (like snapshots of a running program).
 First personally you exist in the same shape (although you cannot know
 that) but you are multiplied by a continuum: the computational
 histories generated by the UD, in the mathematical sense, going through
 those third person states.
 
 Bruno
 
 
 
 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread 1Z


Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Peter Jones writes (quoting SP):

   I've never really understood why computationalists insist that a system
   must be able to handle counterfactuals in order for consciousness to 
   occur,
 
  I've explained that several times: computer programmes contain
  if-then statements.
 
   other than that otherwise any physical system could be seen as 
   implementing
   any computation, which does not seem to me a good reason. In any case,
   Maudlin shows that the requirement for handling counterfactuals leads to
   a situation where of two systems with identical physical activity, one is
   conscious and the other not.
 
  If two systems differ counterfactually, they are not physically
  identical.

 What about an inputless computer program, running deterministically like a 
 recording.
 Would that count as a program at all,

It would be a trivial case.

  and could it be a conscious program, given that
 computationalism is true?

Obviously not, since people have inputs.

 Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread 1Z


Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

 Is it possible that we are currently actors in a single, deterministic, 
 non-branching
 computer program, with the illusion of free will and if-then contingency in 
 general
 being due to the fact that we don't know the details of how the program will 
 play
 out?

Lots of things are possible. The question is what to believe.


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread 1Z


Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Günther writes:

  Well, let's see: in Alice in Wonderland, Humpty Dumpty fell off a
  wall. This is true, isn't it? It is certainly true independent
  of our minds. Indeed, it is true in such a way that even when
  all humans have died, this universe will have a contained a life-form
  which produced an author who wrote a book in which Humpty Dumpty
  fell off a wall. But neither Humpty Dumpty nor the fact that he
  fell off a wall were ever true in this universe - only that this
  story was written, and that many people read about it and could
  converse about it.
 
  So if you believe that numbers have an independent existence, then you
  would definitely also have to believe that Humpty Dumpty exists.
  Both are products of the mind. Either both exist, or both don't
  (other than as brain patterns).
 
  As much as I would like Humpty Dumpty to exist, I'm afraid that
  it is not so.

 The existence of numbers is not like the existence of objects, and I don't
 think that most mathematical Platonists would say that it is.

Most Platonists ar not Mathematical Monists. M-Monists *do*
have to  think it is the same.


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 18-août-06, à 22:59, complexitystudies a écrit :



 As 1Z has so nicely put, existence implies causal interaction.
 Numbers cannot causally interact, therefore they do not exist,
 save as thoughts in our brains.

Don(t say this to a logician. there are as many notion of causality 
than there are modal logics.
(But I guess you assume a physical world and define causal by some 
interaction).
I don't need that. I need only math causality, like if p divide 8 
then p divides 24.




 Of course I do not believe that 37 could be a non prime number,
 simply because what it means to be prime has been exactly
 defined in arithmetic.

You reassure me.



 I just say that these are thought constructs
 with no independent existence (independent of human brains, not of a
 concrete human brain).

 You might say, that 37 was prime even in the Jurassic, but I say:
 nobody had invented arithmetic yet, so it's about as true as the
 fact that James Bond was played by Sean Connery was in the Jurassic.

 I define a system:

 1 + 1 = 2
 2 + 1 = 1
 1 + 2 = 1

 That's all. Okay, it doesn't describe much and probably isn't very
 useful, but other than that it is not inferior to peano arithmetic.
 Does my system now exist mind-independtly for all eternity?


Yes, and even Robinson Arithmetic can prove that. It exists because 
among all fortran programs there exist an infinity of programs which 
compute your table. (it is a Wi or a Fi)
Of course existing does not mean interesting. Some numbers could be 
(relatively) boring, but that is hardly provably so in general.





 I have not yet seen a book on human brain which does not presuppose 
 the
 understanding of the natural numbers.

 Of course, because it is a useful way to describe reality. But in our
 brains, not numbers operate, but chemicals.


I agree. The question here is what are eventually the chemicals. Comp 
answers: it is necessarily an average of point of views on an infinity 
of possible computational continuations. Put in that way, it even looks 
like some formulation of QM. The details are tricky of course (both 
with comp and with the QM only).


snip




  I let you
 discover that, and feel free to ask questions if you have a problem
 with UDA.

 Thank you, I will.



 It is really the point of the UDA. It shows that computationalism (the
 idea that I am a digitalizable machine) is incompatible with weak
 materialism (the idea that there is a primary stuff or matter or
 aristotelian substances).
 Ok, I'll watch for this in UDA.


 But until now, comp leads only to weirdness, not contradiction. And
 then that weirdness seems to explain the quantum weirdness ...
 Intuitively and qualitatively (already by UDA), and then technically
 through the interview of some universal turing machine.

 But wouldn't this universal turing machine need to be composed of
 matter, and then the whole caboodle starts from the beginning?


No. The additive+multiplicative structure of the non negative integers 
(what logician called the natural numbers) is already a video-game rich 
enough to generate coherent and sharable set of computational first 
person plural histories. That *is* the point. Don't take this for 
granted at all. UDA explain why. The lobian interview explain how.
The question is not does Humty-Dumpty exist? The question is does 
not comp entails too much probable Humpty-Dumpty in my neighborhood 
and how to test that.
The question is does comp entails *more*, or *less* white rabbits than 
QM already predicts apparently with some accuracy.

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Peter Jones writes (quoting SP):

  What about an inputless computer program, running deterministically like a 
  recording.
  Would that count as a program at all,
 
 It would be a trivial case.

Trivial does not mean false.
 
   and could it be a conscious program, given that
  computationalism is true?
 
 Obviously not, since people have inputs.

There are several possible responses to that. Firstly, it isn't necessarily 
true that only people 
can be conscious, even if people (and maybe some animals) are the only entities 
we have good 
reason to believe are conscious. 

Secondly, there is always the possibility that an inputless, deterministic 
machine might be able 
to receive input. We might open the case, connect a lead with alligator clips, 
and start communicating 
with it in morse code. To the program, it would be like a message from God. You 
would then have to 
decide at which point the program became conscious: when the case was opened, 
when the message 
was sent, or was it conscious all along? If you say it was not conscious until 
the message was actually 
sent you would have to say that an entity was only conscious while receiving 
input, and stopped 
being conscious while it was analysing the input already received.

Finally, it is possible to have the same kind of interaction that a machine 
with environmental inputs  
has by connecting two previously inputless machines to each other. They can 
then have a two way 
conversation, each surprised by the other's responses, but the system as a 
whole remains inputless 
and deterministic. The ultimate example of this is, as Brent Meeker suggested, 
a self-contained virtual 
reality. The universe as a whole could be seen as just this, unless you believe 
that God speaks to us 
from outside.

Stathis Papaioannou
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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-19 Thread Stathis Papaioannou


Peter Jones writes:

  Is it possible that we are currently actors in a single, deterministic, 
  non-branching
  computer program, with the illusion of free will and if-then contingency in 
  general
  being due to the fact that we don't know the details of how the program 
  will play
  out?
 
 Lots of things are possible. The question is what to believe.

True, but I thought you were saying that such a thing was incompatible with 
consciousness, 
and I see no reason to believe that. You could replace computer program with 
machine 
and have a description of the universe. Actually, you could leave out 
non-branching as well:
the MWI is branching but deterministic, and still leaves room for first person 
indeterminacy.

Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread 1Z


Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Peter Jones writes (quoting Bruno Marchal):

   Frankly I don't think so. Set platonism can be considered as a bold
   assumption, but number platonism, as I said you need a sophisticated
   form of finitism to doubt it. I recall it is just the belief that the
   propositions of elementary arithmetic are independent of you.
 
  Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
  structures *exist* independently of you,
  not just that they are true independently of you.

 What's the difference?


Things that exist are available for causal interaction. Numbers aren't.


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Quentin Anciaux

Hi,

Le vendredi 18 août 2006 11:52, 1Z a écrit :
 Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
  Peter Jones writes (quoting Bruno Marchal):
Frankly I don't think so. Set platonism can be considered as a bold
assumption, but number platonism, as I said you need a sophisticated
form of finitism to doubt it. I recall it is just the belief that the
propositions of elementary arithmetic are independent of you.
  
   Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
   structures *exist* independently of you,
   not just that they are true independently of you.
 
  What's the difference?

 Things that exist are available for causal interaction. Numbers aren't.
You were defining arithmetical platonism and now you define existing. Your 
two comments are contradictory. Because following your description of 
existing, mathematical structure are not available for causal interaction 
(like numbers... )

If you think you're not contradicting yourself, could you explain more in 
detail what you mean.

Regards,
Quentin Anciaux

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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Brent Meeker writes (quoting Peter Jones and SP):

 Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
 structures *exist* independently of you,
 not just that they are true independently of you.
  
  
  What's the difference?
  
  Stathis Papaioannou
 
 You could regard the theorems of arithmetic as just being relative to Peano's 
 axioms: 1+1=2 assuming Peano  Somewhat as Bruno presents his theorems as 
 relative to the axiom of COMP.
 
 Brent Meeker

Even if you say that, there is still a sense in which arithmetic is independent 
of the 
real world. The same can be said of Euclidian geometry: it follows from 
Euclid's axioms 
*despite* the fact that real space is not Euclidian. The fact that real space 
is not 
Euclidian means that Euclidian geometry does not describe the real world, not 
that 
it is false or non-existent.

Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread 1Z


Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Peter Jones writes:

  A claim about truth as opposed to existence cannot
  support the conclusion that matter does not actually exist.

 It can if you can show that the mental does not supervene
 on the physical.

I don't see how that is connected,
and I don't want to claim that the mental
does not supervene on the physical.

 This is far from a generally accepted fact,
 but there but I am not yet aware of convincing arguments
 against the sort of challenge posed to the supervenience
 theory by eg. Tim Maudlin - unless you reject computationalism.

Materialism/physicalism is better supported than computationalism.

Maudlin's arguments rest on the  idea that physicalists must ignore
counterfactuals.
That assumption can  easilly be abandoned.

 Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread 1Z


Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 Hi,

 Le vendredi 18 août 2006 11:52, 1Z a écrit :
  Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
   Peter Jones writes (quoting Bruno Marchal):
 Frankly I don't think so. Set platonism can be considered as a bold
 assumption, but number platonism, as I said you need a sophisticated
 form of finitism to doubt it. I recall it is just the belief that the
 propositions of elementary arithmetic are independent of you.
   
Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
structures *exist* independently of you,
not just that they are true independently of you.
  
   What's the difference?
 
  Things that exist are available for causal interaction. Numbers aren't.

 You were defining arithmetical platonism and now you define existing. Your
 two comments are contradictory.

Not even remotely. I fact, what I have said can be written as two valid
syllogisms.

Existence is availability for causal interaction
Numbers are not available for causal interaction
Numbers do not exist

Platonism is the claim that numbers exist
Numbers do not exist
Platonism is false


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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Peter Jones writes:

 Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
  Peter Jones writes (quoting Bruno Marchal):
 
Frankly I don't think so. Set platonism can be considered as a bold
assumption, but number platonism, as I said you need a sophisticated
form of finitism to doubt it. I recall it is just the belief that the
propositions of elementary arithmetic are independent of you.
  
   Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
   structures *exist* independently of you,
   not just that they are true independently of you.
 
  What's the difference?
 
 
 Things that exist are available for causal interaction. Numbers aren't.

What could it possibly mean for numbers to exist in the sense you claim 
they do not? Could I be mugged by a burly number 6 in a dark alley? I don't 
think that even number-worshipping Pythagoras would have entertained 
such a notion. 

Stathis Papaioannou
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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Peter Jones writes:

 Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
  Peter Jones writes:
 
   A claim about truth as opposed to existence cannot
   support the conclusion that matter does not actually exist.
 
  It can if you can show that the mental does not supervene
  on the physical.
 
 I don't see how that is connected,

If you can conceptualise of a virtual reality generated by a computation
or a mind, and that computation or mind does not require physical 
hardware on which to run, then it is possible (Bruno argues, necessary) 
that our reality is a virtual reality without any underlying real world.

 and I don't want to claim that the mental
 does not supervene on the physical.

I didn't think you would.
 
  This is far from a generally accepted fact,
  but I am not yet aware of convincing arguments
  against the sort of challenge posed to the supervenience
  theory by eg. Tim Maudlin - unless you reject computationalism.
 
 Materialism/physicalism is better supported than computationalism.

Maybe, but mind would be something very mysterious if it isn't computation, 
and mysteriouness goes against the grain for physicalists.

 Maudlin's arguments rest on the  idea that physicalists must ignore
 counterfactuals.
 That assumption can  easilly be abandoned.

I've never really understood why computationalists insist that a system 
must be able to handle counterfactuals in order for consciousness to occur, 
other than that otherwise any physical system could be seen as implementing 
any computation, which does not seem to me a good reason. In any case, 
Maudlin shows that the requirement for handling counterfactuals leads to 
a situation where of two systems with identical physical activity, one is 
conscious and the other not. If anyone should find such an idea unpalatable 
it should be the physicalists.

Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Quentin Anciaux

Le Vendredi 18 Août 2006 14:21, 1Z a écrit :
 Quentin Anciaux wrote:
  Hi,
 
  Le vendredi 18 août 2006 11:52, 1Z a écrit :
   Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
Peter Jones writes (quoting Bruno Marchal):
  Frankly I don't think so. Set platonism can be considered as a
  bold assumption, but number platonism, as I said you need a
  sophisticated form of finitism to doubt it. I recall it is just
  the belief that the propositions of elementary arithmetic are
  independent of you.

 Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
 structures *exist* independently of you,
 not just that they are true independently of you.
   
What's the difference?
  
   Things that exist are available for causal interaction. Numbers aren't.
 
  You were defining arithmetical platonism and now you define existing.
  Your two comments are contradictory.

 Not even remotely. I fact, what I have said can be written as two valid
 syllogisms.

Yes you were... You were denying the definition of Bruno (arithmetical 
realism) by giving yours... then Bruno and Stathis ask for the difference 
between yours and their definition... Which you respond with a contradiction 
to say platonism is false... then either you were effectively contradicting 
yourself or you did not answer Stathis and Bruno question (it's one or the 
other).

 Existence is availability for causal interaction
 Numbers are not available for causal interaction
 Numbers do not exist

That's your definition of existence... this is your claim. Now a definition 
game will not resolve this problem obviously.

 Platonism is the claim that numbers exist
 Numbers do not exist
 Platonism is false

Platonism does not claim number exist by your definition of existence hence 
your conclusion is ill based.

Quentin

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread 1Z


Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Peter Jones writes:

   What's the difference?
 
 
  Things that exist are available for causal interaction. Numbers aren't.

 What could it possibly mean for numbers to exist in the sense you claim
 they do not? Could I be mugged by a burly number 6 in a dark alley? I don't
 think that even number-worshipping Pythagoras would have entertained
 such a notion.

It is for Pythagorenas and Platonists to explain what they mean by
exist.

However, if you are going to claim that we are actually *in* Platonia,
(mathematical monism) there must be some equivalence between the
existence we
have and the existence numbers have.


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread 1Z


Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Peter Jones writes:

  Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
   Peter Jones writes:
  
A claim about truth as opposed to existence cannot
support the conclusion that matter does not actually exist.
  
   It can if you can show that the mental does not supervene
   on the physical.
 
  I don't see how that is connected,

 If you can conceptualise of a virtual reality generated by a computation
 or a mind, and that computation or mind does not require physical
 hardware on which to run, then it is possible (Bruno argues, necessary)
 that our reality is a virtual reality without any underlying real world.


A virtual reality that is being generated is an existing (in some
sense)
virtual reality that is being really (in some sense)
generated.

A computation that does not require
physical hardware is either non-existent simpliciter
(in which case we are simply not such a computation, since nothing
existing is identical to anythig non-existing) or it exists
Platonically
(non-physically, in some sense),

A valid argument cannot, in genral, come to a conlusion
that is not already implcit in its premises.

Either existence is implict in the virtual reality premiss, or it
isn't. If it is, a Platonic quesiton is being begged. If it isn't,
the existential conclusion is invalid.

  and I don't want to claim that the mental
  does not supervene on the physical.

 I didn't think you would.

   This is far from a generally accepted fact,
   but I am not yet aware of convincing arguments
   against the sort of challenge posed to the supervenience
   theory by eg. Tim Maudlin - unless you reject computationalism.
 
  Materialism/physicalism is better supported than computationalism.

 Maybe, but mind would be something very mysterious if it isn't computation,

Most things aren't computation. Most things also aren't mysterious.

 and mysteriouness goes against the grain for physicalists.



  Maudlin's arguments rest on the  idea that physicalists must ignore
  counterfactuals.
  That assumption can  easilly be abandoned.

 I've never really understood why computationalists insist that a system
 must be able to handle counterfactuals in order for consciousness to occur,

I've explained that several times: computer programmes contain
if-then statements.

 other than that otherwise any physical system could be seen as implementing
 any computation, which does not seem to me a good reason. In any case,
 Maudlin shows that the requirement for handling counterfactuals leads to
 a situation where of two systems with identical physical activity, one is
 conscious and the other not.

If two systems differ counterfactually, they are not physically
identical.

 If anyone should find such an idea unpalatable
 it should be the physicalists.

So I am told, but I remain unconvinced.

 Stathis Papaioannou

 _
 Be one of the first to try Windows Live Mail.
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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Quentin Anciaux

Le Vendredi 18 Août 2006 17:02, 1Z a écrit :
 Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
  Peter Jones writes:
What's the difference?
  
   Things that exist are available for causal interaction. Numbers aren't.
 
  What could it possibly mean for numbers to exist in the sense you claim
  they do not? Could I be mugged by a burly number 6 in a dark alley? I
  don't think that even number-worshipping Pythagoras would have
  entertained such a notion.

 It is for Pythagorenas and Platonists to explain what they mean by
 exist.

I think it has been said several times :

The existence of a number/arithmetical proposition is the fact that its 
existence/truth does not depend on the fact that you exist/that it exists 
conscious beings capable of thinking of it.

So the truth value of a proposition is independant of me.

Quentin

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread 1Z


Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 Le Vendredi 18 Août 2006 17:02, 1Z a écrit :
  Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
   Peter Jones writes:
 What's the difference?
   
Things that exist are available for causal interaction. Numbers aren't.
  
   What could it possibly mean for numbers to exist in the sense you claim
   they do not? Could I be mugged by a burly number 6 in a dark alley? I
   don't think that even number-worshipping Pythagoras would have
   entertained such a notion.
 
  It is for Pythagorenas and Platonists to explain what they mean by
  exist.

 I think it has been said several times :

 The existence of a number/arithmetical proposition is the fact that its
 existence/truth does not depend on the fact that you exist/that it exists
 conscious beings capable of thinking of it.

That is an explanation of mind-independence, not of  existence.
The anti-Platonist (e.g. the formalist) can claim that
the truth of mathematical statments is mind-independent,
but their existence isn't.


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread 1Z


Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 Le Vendredi 18 Août 2006 14:21, 1Z a écrit :
  Quentin Anciaux wrote:
   Hi,
  
   Le vendredi 18 août 2006 11:52, 1Z a écrit :
Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Peter Jones writes (quoting Bruno Marchal):
   Frankly I don't think so. Set platonism can be considered as a
   bold assumption, but number platonism, as I said you need a
   sophisticated form of finitism to doubt it. I recall it is just
   the belief that the propositions of elementary arithmetic are
   independent of you.
 
  Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
  structures *exist* independently of you,
  not just that they are true independently of you.

 What's the difference?
   
Things that exist are available for causal interaction. Numbers aren't.
  
   You were defining arithmetical platonism and now you define existing.
   Your two comments are contradictory.
 
  Not even remotely. I fact, what I have said can be written as two valid
  syllogisms.

 Yes you were... You were denying the definition of Bruno (arithmetical
 realism) by giving yours


Firstly, that isn't *self* contradiciton.

Secondly, Bruno's approach is ambiguous. (If he clearly states
that AR is only about truth and not about existence, he can't claim
that
matter doesn't exist if COMP is true, because matter doesn't exist
is an existential statement and COMP (absent Platonism) isn't.
If he clearly states AR ia about existence, he can no longer
claim that COMP is his only premiss).

 ... then Bruno and Stathis ask for the difference
 between yours and their definition.

Defintion of what ? Existence ? Yes, I do have
a different definition.

 .. Which you respond with a contradiction
 to say platonism is false...

Platonism *is* false using my definitions. They must
be using  a different defintion. That still doesn't
mean I am contradicting *myself*. I may be comtradicting other peopel:
well,
people are allowed to contradict each other.

 then either you were effectively contradicting
 yourself or you did not answer Stathis and Bruno question (it's one or the
 other).



  Existence is availability for causal interaction
  Numbers are not available for causal interaction
  Numbers do not exist

 That's your definition of existence... this is your claim. Now a definition
 game will not resolve this problem obviously.

Then the problem cannot be solved at all, since there is no
other way of solving abstract problems. (All mathematical
problems are solved using definitions!)

Why, BTW, do you assume there is no way
of arriving at the correct definition ? Isn't that
what dictionaries are for.

  Platonism is the claim that numbers exist
  Numbers do not exist
  Platonism is false

 Platonism does not claim number exist by your definition of existence hence
 your conclusion is ill based.

It isn't false if my definition of existence is the only defintion.
The ball is in the Platonists' court: they need to come
up with another definition of existence.

However, they presumably don't have one, or they would not be
asking me what existence means.


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Brent Meeker

Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Brent Meeker writes (quoting Peter Jones and SP):
 
 
Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
structures *exist* independently of you,
not just that they are true independently of you.


What's the difference?

Stathis Papaioannou

You could regard the theorems of arithmetic as just being relative to Peano's 
axioms: 1+1=2 assuming Peano  Somewhat as Bruno presents his theorems as 
relative to the axiom of COMP.

Brent Meeker
 
 
 Even if you say that, there is still a sense in which arithmetic is 
 independent of the 
 real world. The same can be said of Euclidian geometry: it follows from 
 Euclid's axioms 
 *despite* the fact that real space is not Euclidian. The fact that real space 
 is not 
 Euclidian means that Euclidian geometry does not describe the real world, not 
 that 
 it is false or non-existent.
 
 Stathis Papaioannou

But the fact that a theorem is true relative to some axioms doesn't make it 
true 
or existent.  Some mathematicians I know regard it as a game.  Is true that a 
bishop can only move diagonally?  It is relative to chess.  Does chess exist? 
It does in our heads.  But without us it wouldn't.

Brent Meeker

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Brent Meeker

1Z wrote:
 
 Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
...
I've never really understood why computationalists insist that a system
must be able to handle counterfactuals in order for consciousness to occur,
 
 
 I've explained that several times: computer programmes contain
 if-then statements.
 
 
other than that otherwise any physical system could be seen as implementing
any computation, which does not seem to me a good reason. In any case,
Maudlin shows that the requirement for handling counterfactuals leads to
a situation where of two systems with identical physical activity, one is
conscious and the other not.
 
 
 If two systems differ counterfactually, they are not physically
 identical.

I don't think I understand this either.  Computer programs contain if-then 
statements which branch the process depending on the data input to the program. 
  But there is no real distinction between data an program.  So if you insist 
that  computed intelligence or consciousness depends on counterfactuals in the 
program that seems to me to be the same as insisting that the computation is 
implemented in some way that divides it from input data, i.e. it is in an 
environment.

I'm sympathetic to this view.  I think intelligence is relative to an 
environment.  But I'm not sure what computationalists think of this; I believe 
they suppose the environment can be simulated too and so then the whole thing 
is 
a closed system and there are no conuterfactual branchings.

Brent Meeker

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread 1Z


Brent Meeker wrote:

 But the fact that a theorem is true relative to some axioms doesn't make it 
 true
 or existent.

It doesn't make it *false* relative to those axioms. It has
to be estbalished that a mathematical statement needs to or
can aspire to further kinds of truth,


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread 1Z


Brent Meeker wrote:
 1Z wrote:
 
  Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 ...
 I've never really understood why computationalists insist that a system
 must be able to handle counterfactuals in order for consciousness to occur,
 
 
  I've explained that several times: computer programmes contain
  if-then statements.
 
 
 other than that otherwise any physical system could be seen as implementing
 any computation, which does not seem to me a good reason. In any case,
 Maudlin shows that the requirement for handling counterfactuals leads to
 a situation where of two systems with identical physical activity, one is
 conscious and the other not.
 
 
  If two systems differ counterfactually, they are not physically
  identical.

 I don't think I understand this either.

Either that, or counterfactuallity is  asupernatural phenomenon.

 Computer programs contain if-then
 statements which branch the process depending on the data input to the 
 program.
   But there is no real distinction between data an program.

There is a difference between data and process --i.e. running
programme.

Standard computationalism says mentation (as an activity)
is computation (as  a process). It is a rare computationalist
who think that a spool of tape gathering dust in a cupboardi
is mentating. (Not much of a Yes Doctor).

   So if you insist
 that  computed intelligence or consciousness depends on counterfactuals in the
 program that seems to me to be the same as insisting that the computation is
 implemented in some way that divides it from input data, i.e. it is in an
 environment.

Well, it is divided -- by the programme/process distinction.

 I'm sympathetic to this view.  I think intelligence is relative to an
 environment.  But I'm not sure what computationalists think of this; I believe
 they suppose the environment can be simulated too and so then the whole thing 
 is
 a closed system and there are no conuterfactual branchings.
 
 Brent Meeker


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Brent Meeker

1Z wrote:
 
 Brent Meeker wrote:
 
1Z wrote:
...
If two systems differ counterfactually, they are not physically
identical.

I don't think I understand this either.
 
 
 Either that, or counterfactuallity is  asupernatural phenomenon.
 
 
Computer programs contain if-then
statements which branch the process depending on the data input to the 
program.
  But there is no real distinction between data an program.
 
 
 There is a difference between data and process --i.e. running
 programme.

I don't disagree, but I don't see what that has to do with programs having 
if-thens.  Given the program and the data, the process is only going down one 
branch.  So when you talk about counterfactuals it must be because you are 
considering other possible data as input.

 Standard computationalism says mentation (as an activity)
 is computation (as  a process). It is a rare computationalist
 who think that a spool of tape gathering dust in a cupboardi
 is mentating. (Not much of a Yes Doctor).
 
 
  So if you insist
that  computed intelligence or consciousness depends on counterfactuals in the
program that seems to me to be the same as insisting that the computation is
implemented in some way that divides it from input data, i.e. it is in an
environment.
 
 
 Well, it is divided -- by the programme/process distinction.

That's the (program+data)/process distinction.  But ISTM that without a 
program/data distinction, counterfactuals are a distinction without a 
difference.

Brent Meeker

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread complexitystudies


 I think it has been said several times :
 
 The existence of a number/arithmetical proposition is the fact that its 
 existence/truth does not depend on the fact that you exist/that it exists 
 conscious beings capable of thinking of it.
 
 So the truth value of a proposition is independant of me.

Well, let's see: in Alice in Wonderland, Humpty Dumpty fell off a
wall. This is true, isn't it? It is certainly true independent
of our minds. Indeed, it is true in such a way that even when
all humans have died, this universe will have a contained a life-form
which produced an author who wrote a book in which Humpty Dumpty
fell off a wall. But neither Humpty Dumpty nor the fact that he
fell off a wall were ever true in this universe - only that this
story was written, and that many people read about it and could
converse about it.

So if you believe that numbers have an independent existence, then you
would definitely also have to believe that Humpty Dumpty exists.
Both are products of the mind. Either both exist, or both don't
(other than as brain patterns).

As much as I would like Humpty Dumpty to exist, I'm afraid that
it is not so.

Regards,
Günther

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread complexitystudies



1Z wrote:

 Not even remotely. I fact, what I have said can be written as two valid
 syllogisms.
 
 Existence is availability for causal interaction
 Numbers are not available for causal interaction
 Numbers do not exist
 
 Platonism is the claim that numbers exist
 Numbers do not exist
 Platonism is false

Wonderful!

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread 1Z


Brent Meeker wrote:
 1Z wrote:
 
  Brent Meeker wrote:
 
 1Z wrote:
 ...
 If two systems differ counterfactually, they are not physically
 identical.
 
 I don't think I understand this either.
 
 
  Either that, or counterfactuallity is  asupernatural phenomenon.
 
 
 Computer programs contain if-then
 statements which branch the process depending on the data input to the 
 program.
   But there is no real distinction between data an program.
 
 
  There is a difference between data and process --i.e. running
  programme.

 I don't disagree, but I don't see what that has to do with programs having
 if-thens.  Given the program and the data, the process is only going down one
 branch.

But that's not what makes it computation. What makes
it computation is behaving differently for different data.

 So when you talk about counterfactuals it must be because you are
 considering other possible data as input.

  Standard computationalism says mentation (as an activity)
  is computation (as  a process). It is a rare computationalist
  who think that a spool of tape gathering dust in a cupboardi
  is mentating. (Not much of a Yes Doctor).
 
 
   So if you insist
 that  computed intelligence or consciousness depends on counterfactuals in 
 the
 program that seems to me to be the same as insisting that the computation is
 implemented in some way that divides it from input data, i.e. it is in an
 environment.
 
 
  Well, it is divided -- by the programme/process distinction.

 That's the (program+data)/process distinction.  But ISTM that without a
 program/data distinction, counterfactuals are a distinction without a 
 difference.

I am saying there is a programme/data distinction, which rests on
the programme/process distinction.

 Brent Meeker


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Quentin Anciaux

Hi,

Le Vendredi 18 Août 2006 22:17, complexitystudies a écrit :
  I think it has been said several times :
 
  The existence of a number/arithmetical proposition is the fact that its
  existence/truth does not depend on the fact that you exist/that it exists
  conscious beings capable of thinking of it.
 
  So the truth value of a proposition is independant of me.

 Well, let's see: in Alice in Wonderland, Humpty Dumpty fell off a
 wall. This is true, isn't it? It is certainly true independent
 of our minds. Indeed, it is true in such a way that even when
 all humans have died, this universe will have a contained a life-form
 which produced an author who wrote a book in which Humpty Dumpty
 fell off a wall. But neither Humpty Dumpty nor the fact that he
 fell off a wall were ever true in this universe - only that this
 story was written, and that many people read about it and could
 converse about it.

 So if you believe that numbers have an independent existence, then you
 would definitely also have to believe that Humpty Dumpty exists.
 Both are products of the mind. Either both exist, or both don't
 (other than as brain patterns).

Well, if computationalism is true, then there exists observer moment of an I 
(not talking about me here ;) who is Humpty Dumpty, so there is an universe 
where Humpty Dumpty exists in the same sense I exist. The fact that in our 
universe Humpty Dumpty only exist in a story does not tell anything about a 
real Humpty Dumpty living in (at least) one (but in fact an infinity) of the 
computed universe by for example the UD (Universal Dovetailer). You must at 
least accept multiple world, ie a multiverse. This multiverse should also be 
fairly large (the UD trace is very very large ;).

Now I think UD could be false if it is impossible to have a real turing 
machine (no memory bound, no time bound), because if it is possible then the 
majority of OM will be computed by the UD, so the probability of your current 
OM being computed on a physical computer is zero. UD could also be false if 
we are not turing emulable... ie consciousness is not a computation 
process... but physicalism doesn't tell what it is then.

Regards,
Quentin

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread complexitystudies



Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 Le 17-août-06, à 00:14, complexitystudies a écrit :
 I recall it is just the belief that the
 propositions of elementary arithmetic are independent of you. Do you 
 sincerley belief that 37 could be a non prime number? Or that the 
 square root of 2 can equal to a ratio of two integers?
 Or that if you run a program fortran it could neither stop nor not 
 stop?  (When all the default assumption are on, to evacuate contingent 
 stopping of a machine implemented in some deep story)?

As 1Z has so nicely put, existence implies causal interaction.
Numbers cannot causally interact, therefore they do not exist,
save as thoughts in our brains.

Of course I do not believe that 37 could be a non prime number,
simply because what it means to be prime has been exactly
defined in arithmetic. I just say that these are thought constructs
with no independent existence (independent of human brains, not of a
concrete human brain).

You might say, that 37 was prime even in the Jurassic, but I say:
nobody had invented arithmetic yet, so it's about as true as the
fact that James Bond was played by Sean Connery was in the Jurassic.

I define a system:

1 + 1 = 2
2 + 1 = 1
1 + 2 = 1

That's all. Okay, it doesn't describe much and probably isn't very
useful, but other than that it is not inferior to peano arithmetic.
Does my system now exist mind-independtly for all eternity?


 I have not yet seen a book on human brain which does not presuppose the 
 understanding of the natural numbers. 

Of course, because it is a useful way to describe reality. But in our
brains, not numbers operate, but chemicals.

 Numbers are not symbol. Symbols can be used to talk about numbers, but 
 they should not be confused with numbers.

You are right there of course. Symbols are only referents. What counts
is meaning. What I meant to say is that the meanings we assign to number
symbols exist only in our minds. Indeed, meaning _is_ only created by
interactions between an agent and an environment. With both of these,
no meaning. Indeed, in an mind-and-matter independent (=non existing
)universe, arithmetic would be about as meaningless as it gets.



 The notion of same number seems to have occur much before we 
 discovered counting. Farmers have most probably learn to compare the 
 size of the herds of sheep without counting, just by associating each 
 sheep from one herd to the another. But this as nothing to do with the 
 fact that sheeps were countable before humans learn to count it.
 Humans and brains learn to count countable things because they are 
 countable.

Not exactly. Animals and babies can distinguish up to 2-3 objects
(innate arithmetic, subitizing). The experiments with which this has
been ascertained are both fascinating and entertaining (google is your
friend ;-)
This ability has an evolutionary advantage: it is necessary for higher
organisms to distinguish more or less abundant food sources or numbers
of predators. But this meaning this countability, arises out of the
physical world, and is not independent of it.


 I think you are confusing the subject or object of math, and the human 
 mathematical theories, which are just lantern putting a tiny light on 
 the subject.

Indeed I am not. I am just saying that there is no independent subject
of math outside of human brains. Mathematics is the study of rules we
make up (axioms) and what follows of them (theorems).
If we pick our axioms wisely, we can even model some aspects of the
real, physical world with it.

 If numbers and their math was really invented, why should 
 mathematicians hide some results, like Pythagoras with the 
 irrationality of the square root of two, ... As David Deutsch says: 
 math kicks back.

That is very easy: the Pythagoreans assumed axioms, and thought they
knew what would follow from them. Then, to their dismay, they found
out that also somewhat else followed from the axioms than they had
ideally envisioned, something that displeased their aesthetic sense.
Only human factors involved here,
no independent existence of math. It just shows how limited our thought
is, and that we do not even anticipate theorems that follow from our
axioms when they are rather simple.

 
 Also, concepts like infinity are most definitely not universal
 concepts out there, but products of our mind.
 

 I doubt any mind could ever produce infinity.

But indeed, _only_ minds produce them, because, as you say, infinity
is a concept, and concepts exist only in minds.

In reality, there is no such thing as infinity. Even if space
would expand infinitely, this infinity would not exist as a thing
(except in the trivial *lol* sense as the universe exists), but would
be a concept for us humans to talk about it.
Concepts need not be precisely understood as to be concepts.
For example, consciousness is definitely not understood, but talked
about a lot.

How does the human mind create the concept of infinity:
Lakoff and Nunez have a nice metaphor:
Humans see 

Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Brent Meeker

complexitystudies wrote:
...
 
 
 Not exactly. Animals and babies can distinguish up to 2-3 objects
 (innate arithmetic, subitizing). The experiments with which this has
 been ascertained are both fascinating and entertaining (google is your
 friend ;-)
 This ability has an evolutionary advantage: it is necessary for higher
 organisms to distinguish more or less abundant food sources or numbers
 of predators. But this meaning this countability, arises out of the
 physical world, and is not independent of it.

The experiment I recall from the '50s was with crows.  If men went into a blind 
in the middle of a corn field where crows were feeding the crows would fly up 
into the surrounding trees.  Then the men would leave one or two at a time.  If 
the number were five or fewer the crows would know when the last one had left 
and immediately come back to feed.  With six they were sometimes wrong.  With 
seven or more they would wait and then return cautiously a few at a time.

Of course they probably weren't counting, mapping cardinality to sequence, but 
they had the concept of number.

Brent Meeker

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Brent Meeker

complexitystudies wrote:
 
I think it has been said several times :

The existence of a number/arithmetical proposition is the fact that its 
existence/truth does not depend on the fact that you exist/that it exists 
conscious beings capable of thinking of it.

So the truth value of a proposition is independant of me.
 
 
 Well, let's see: in Alice in Wonderland, Humpty Dumpty fell off a
 wall. This is true, isn't it? It is certainly true independent
 of our minds. Indeed, it is true in such a way that even when
 all humans have died, this universe will have a contained a life-form
 which produced an author who wrote a book in which Humpty Dumpty
 fell off a wall. But neither Humpty Dumpty nor the fact that he
 fell off a wall were ever true in this universe - only that this
 story was written, and that many people read about it and could
 converse about it.
 
 So if you believe that numbers have an independent existence, then you
 would definitely also have to believe that Humpty Dumpty exists.
 Both are products of the mind. Either both exist, or both don't
 (other than as brain patterns).
 
 As much as I would like Humpty Dumpty to exist, I'm afraid that
 it is not so.
 
 Regards,
 Günther

I agree.  But truth need not imply existence.  That's the idea of free logic 
(i.e. free of existential suppositions).  So one can say Shelock Holmes lived 
on Baker Street. is true and Sherlock Holmes drove a car. is false.  But 
then 
some statments, such as Sherlock Holmes had a mole on his left side. are 
neither true nor false.

Brent Meeker

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Colin Geoffrey Hales




 1Z wrote:

 Not even remotely. I fact, what I have said can be written as two valid
 syllogisms.

 Existence is availability for causal interaction
 Numbers are not available for causal interaction
 Numbers do not exist

 Platonism is the claim that numbers exist
 Numbers do not exist
 Platonism is false

 Wonderful!


What about real-world 'existent' causal interaction that _causally_
behaves 'as-if' a platonic 'quantity' exists to interact with? Same for
the non-existant platonic object RED. Same for the non-existant platonic
object ORGASM.

What is the existence status of the causality thus instantiated? What
aspect of the platonic object map to the subsequent causally existent of
the interaction?

If it 'like something' to be an 'existent' causal interaction,
ever(and it most certainly can be in brain material)
then what would it be 'like' to be a virtual interaction with a
platonic object?

They may not exist, but they may be 'examinable'.

Indeed... I'd say it could 'be like' QUANTITYness, REDness and
ORGASMness... to some extent, anyway.

If you insist that everything is shoved into 'realism' or 'platonism',
just because we have the words...you miss entirely a wonderful
intermediate class of existence.

Colin Hales
(where's my 'Law of Science' post gone?)


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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Stathis Papaioannou




Peter Jones writes (quoting SP):

  I've never really understood why computationalists insist that a system
  must be able to handle counterfactuals in order for consciousness to occur,
 
 I've explained that several times: computer programmes contain
 if-then statements.
 
  other than that otherwise any physical system could be seen as implementing
  any computation, which does not seem to me a good reason. In any case,
  Maudlin shows that the requirement for handling counterfactuals leads to
  a situation where of two systems with identical physical activity, one is
  conscious and the other not.
 
 If two systems differ counterfactually, they are not physically
 identical.

What about an inputless computer program, running deterministically like a 
recording. 
Would that count as a program at all, and could it be a conscious program, 
given that 
computationalism is true?

Stathis Papaioannou
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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Brent Meeker writes:

  Even if you say that, there is still a sense in which arithmetic is 
  independent of the 
  real world. The same can be said of Euclidian geometry: it follows from 
  Euclid's axioms 
  *despite* the fact that real space is not Euclidian. The fact that real 
  space is not 
  Euclidian means that Euclidian geometry does not describe the real world, 
  not that 
  it is false or non-existent.
  
  Stathis Papaioannou
 
 But the fact that a theorem is true relative to some axioms doesn't make it 
 true 
 or existent.  Some mathematicians I know regard it as a game.  Is true that a 
 bishop can only move diagonally?  It is relative to chess.  Does chess exist? 
 It does in our heads.  But without us it wouldn't.

What more could we possibly ask of a theorem other than that it be true 
relative to some 
axioms? That a theorem should describe some aspect of the real world, or that 
it should 
be discovered by some mathematician, is contingent on the nature of the real 
world, but that 
it is true is not.

Stathis Papaioannou
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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Brent Meeker writes:
 
 1Z wrote:
  
  Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 ...
 I've never really understood why computationalists insist that a system
 must be able to handle counterfactuals in order for consciousness to occur,
  
  
  I've explained that several times: computer programmes contain
  if-then statements.
  
  
 other than that otherwise any physical system could be seen as implementing
 any computation, which does not seem to me a good reason. In any case,
 Maudlin shows that the requirement for handling counterfactuals leads to
 a situation where of two systems with identical physical activity, one is
 conscious and the other not.
  
  
  If two systems differ counterfactually, they are not physically
  identical.
 
 I don't think I understand this either.  Computer programs contain if-then 
 statements which branch the process depending on the data input to the 
 program. 
   But there is no real distinction between data an program.  So if you insist 
 that  computed intelligence or consciousness depends on counterfactuals in 
 the 
 program that seems to me to be the same as insisting that the computation is 
 implemented in some way that divides it from input data, i.e. it is in an 
 environment.
 
 I'm sympathetic to this view.  I think intelligence is relative to an 
 environment.  But I'm not sure what computationalists think of this; I 
 believe 
 they suppose the environment can be simulated too and so then the whole thing 
 is 
 a closed system and there are no conuterfactual branchings.
 
 Brent Meeker

Is it possible that we are currently actors in a single, deterministic, 
non-branching 
computer program, with the illusion of free will and if-then contingency in 
general 
being due to the fact that we don't know the details of how the program will 
play 
out?

Stathis Papaioannou
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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-18 Thread Stathis Papaioannou


Günther writes:

 Well, let's see: in Alice in Wonderland, Humpty Dumpty fell off a
 wall. This is true, isn't it? It is certainly true independent
 of our minds. Indeed, it is true in such a way that even when
 all humans have died, this universe will have a contained a life-form
 which produced an author who wrote a book in which Humpty Dumpty
 fell off a wall. But neither Humpty Dumpty nor the fact that he
 fell off a wall were ever true in this universe - only that this
 story was written, and that many people read about it and could
 converse about it.
 
 So if you believe that numbers have an independent existence, then you
 would definitely also have to believe that Humpty Dumpty exists.
 Both are products of the mind. Either both exist, or both don't
 (other than as brain patterns).
 
 As much as I would like Humpty Dumpty to exist, I'm afraid that
 it is not so.

The existence of numbers is not like the existence of objects, and I don't 
think that most mathematical Platonists would say that it is. It is indeed 
true independent of our minds that, if someone were to write a story 
in which Humpty Dumpty falls off the wall, then Humpty Dumpty would fall 
off the wall in that story. That is different to saying that Humpty Dumpty 
actually did fall off the wall in the real world, such as it is. It is also 
true 
that given the axioms of Euclidian geometry, the angles in a triangle add 
up to 180 degrees, and this is so independently of whether the angles of 
a triangle in the real world add up to 180 degrees, or whether Euclid ever 
lived.

Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-17 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 17-août-06, à 00:14, complexitystudies a écrit :


 Again we are discussing the arithmetical realism (which I just 
 assume).

 A bold assumption, if I may say so.


Frankly I don't think so. Set platonism can be considered as a bold 
assumption, but number platonism, as I said you need a sophisticated 
form of finitism to doubt it. I recall it is just the belief that the 
propositions of elementary arithmetic are independent of you. Do you 
sincerley belief that 37 could be a non prime number? Or that the 
square root of 2 can equal to a ratio of two integers?
Or that if you run a program fortran it could neither stop nor not 
stop?  (When all the default assumption are on, to evacuate contingent 
stopping of a machine implemented in some deep story)?




 But my exploration into cognitive neuroscience has exposed to me
 how mathematical thinking comes about, and that it is indeed not
 separable from our human brains.


I have not yet seen a book on human brain which does not presuppose the 
understanding of the natural numbers. Note just for using the index, 
but in the neuronal explanation themselves, implicitly or explicitly.
Eventually with comp the brain itself appears as a construct of the 
mind. The mathematical mind of the Lobian machines. Those are the 
self-referentially correct universal (sufficiently chatty) machines.




 Numbers are symbols we create in our minds to communicate with
 fellow individuals about things of importance to us.


Numbers are not symbol. Symbols can be used to talk about numbers, but 
they should not be confused with numbers.



 To paraphrase Descartes very liberally:
 We group, therefore we can count.

 Our act of arbitrary grouping (made a bit less arbitrary by
 evolution, which makes us group things which are good to
 our survival, like gazelles and spears or berries) let's us
 count and communicate the number.


The notion of same number seems to have occur much before we 
discovered counting. Farmers have most probably learn to compare the 
size of the herds of sheep without counting, just by associating each 
sheep from one herd to the another. But this as nothing to do with the 
fact that sheeps were countable before humans learn to count it.
Humans and brains learn to count countable things because they are 
countable.
I think you are confusing the subject or object of math, and the human 
mathematical theories, which are just lantern putting a tiny light on 
the subject.

If numbers and their math was really invented, why should 
mathematicians hide some results, like Pythagoras with the 
irrationality of the square root of two, ... As David Deutsch says: 
math kicks back.



 For the universe one apple may not exist, because in effect
 there are only quarks interacting. And at this level indeterminacy
 strikes mercilessly, making it all but meaningless to count quarks.


You will not find a book explaining that meaninglessness without 
taking for granted the idea of counting at the start.




 Also, concepts like infinity are most definitely not universal
 concepts out there, but products of our mind.


I doubt any mind could ever produce infinity.



 Of course, symbolisms are arbitrary, but physical instantiation makes
 all the difference.


(note that my goal consists in explaining physical instantiation 
without using physical things at all. My point is that if we 
postulate comp, then we have to do this).




 Note that if you understand the whole UDA,

 Unfortunately, not yet, but I'm reading!


Ah, ok. UDA mainly shows that the mind-body problem is two times more 
difficult than most materialist are thinking. Indeed, with comp, matter 
can no more be explained by postulating a physical world. I let you 
discover that, and feel free to ask questions if you have a problem 
with UDA.




 you should realize that the
 price of assuming a physical universe (and wanting it to be related
 with our experiences *and* our experiments) is to postulate that you
 (and us, if you are not solipsistic) are not turing emulable. No
 problem.

 Why is that so? Could you clarify this issue?



It is really the point of the UDA. It shows that computationalism (the 
idea that I am a digitalizable machine) is incompatible with weak 
materialism (the idea that there is a primary stuff or matter or 
aristotelian substances).




 Absolutely. But I think we have to start with our assumptions and
 try to scrutinize them very carefully. After all, we want to devote
 our minds to problems arising out of them during our lives, and
 thus the initial choice should not be made rashly, but only after
 careful review of our current body of knowledge.



OK, but don't forget that here the idea is also to get some 
contradiction from hypotheses, so as to abandon them.
But until now, comp leads only to weirdness, not contradiction. And 
then that weirdness seems to explain the quantum weirdness ... 
Intuitively and qualitatively (already by UDA), and then technically 
through the 

Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-17 Thread 1Z


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 Le 17-août-06, à 00:14, complexitystudies a écrit :

 
  Again we are discussing the arithmetical realism (which I just
  assume).
 
  A bold assumption, if I may say so.


 Frankly I don't think so. Set platonism can be considered as a bold
 assumption, but number platonism, as I said you need a sophisticated
 form of finitism to doubt it. I recall it is just the belief that the
 propositions of elementary arithmetic are independent of you.

Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
structures *exist* independently of you,
not just that they are true independently of you.


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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-17 Thread 1Z


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 Le 17-août-06, à 16:41, 1Z a écrit :

  Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
  structures *exist* independently of you,
  not just that they are true independently of you.

 What is the difference between the proposition it exists a prime
 number is true independently of me, and the proposition it exists a
 prime number (independently of me)?

The contextual meaning of exists.

What is the difference between

Sherlock Holmes lives at 221B Baker Street

and

Sherlock Holmes lives ?

 I can see a nuance, and that is why I prefer to use the expression 
 Arithmetical Realism (AR) (and then I always define what I mean by
 that) instead of platonism (which I prefer to reserve when Plato is
 actually mentionned, like with the Theatetical definition of
 knowledge).

A claim about truth as opposed to existence cannot
support the conclusion that matter does not actually exist.


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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-17 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Peter Jones writes (quoting Bruno Marchal):

  Frankly I don't think so. Set platonism can be considered as a bold
  assumption, but number platonism, as I said you need a sophisticated
  form of finitism to doubt it. I recall it is just the belief that the
  propositions of elementary arithmetic are independent of you.
 
 Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
 structures *exist* independently of you,
 not just that they are true independently of you.

What's the difference?

Stathis Papaioannou
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RE: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-17 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Peter Jones writes:

 A claim about truth as opposed to existence cannot
 support the conclusion that matter does not actually exist.

It can if you can show that the mental does not supervene 
on the physical. This is far from a generally accepted fact, 
but there but I am not yet aware of convincing arguments 
against the sort of challenge posed to the supervenience 
theory by eg. Tim Maudlin - unless you reject computationalism.

Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-17 Thread Brent Meeker

Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 Peter Jones writes (quoting Bruno Marchal):
 
 
Frankly I don't think so. Set platonism can be considered as a bold
assumption, but number platonism, as I said you need a sophisticated
form of finitism to doubt it. I recall it is just the belief that the
propositions of elementary arithmetic are independent of you.

Arithemtical Platonism is the belief that mathematical
structures *exist* independently of you,
not just that they are true independently of you.
 
 
 What's the difference?
 
 Stathis Papaioannou

You could regard the theorems of arithmetic as just being relative to Peano's 
axioms: 1+1=2 assuming Peano  Somewhat as Bruno presents his theorems as 
relative to the axiom of COMP.

Brent Meeker

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Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-16 Thread complexitystudies


Hi Bruno,

 Again we are discussing the arithmetical realism (which I just assume).

A bold assumption, if I may say so.

 To be clear on that hypothesis, I do indeed find plausible that the 
 number six is perfect, even in the case the branes would not have 
 collide, no big bang, no physical universe.
 Six is perfect just because its divisors are 1, 2, and 3; and that 
 1+2+3 = 6. Not because I know that. I blieve the contrary: it is the 
 independent truth of 6 = sum of its proper divisors than eventually 
 I, and you, can learn it.

I understand your argumentation well, because maybe one or two years
ago I said nearly the same sentences to colleagues.
But my exploration into cognitive neuroscience has exposed to me
how mathematical thinking comes about, and that it is indeed not
separable from our human brains.


 If you want, numbers are what makes any counting possible.

Numbers are symbols we create in our minds to communicate with
fellow individuals about things of importance to us.

To paraphrase Descartes very liberally:
We group, therefore we can count.

Our act of arbitrary grouping (made a bit less arbitrary by
evolution, which makes us group things which are good to
our survival, like gazelles and spears or berries) let's us
count and communicate the number.

For the universe one apple may not exist, because in effect
there are only quarks interacting. And at this level indeterminacy
strikes mercilessly, making it all but meaningless to count quarks.

Also, concepts like infinity are most definitely not universal
concepts out there, but products of our mind.


 It is not because some country put salt on pancakes that pancakes do 
 not exist there. Roman where writing 8 -3 for us 8 - 2. It is like 
 saying 3*7 = 25 on planet TETRA. They mean 3*7 = 21, they just put it 
 differently.

Of course, symbolisms are arbitrary, but physical instantiation makes
all the difference.


 No problem. I see you assume a physical universe. I don't. We havejust
 different theories.

So, which experiment decides which is true? I think platonism derives
it's power from misconceptions of the human mind.
The unthinking stone would never construe such a thing as platonism.
It would just exist - in a very real world ;-)

Note that if you understand the whole UDA,

Unfortunately, not yet, but I'm reading!


 you should realize that the
price of assuming a physical universe (and wanting it to be related
with our experiences *and* our experiments) is to postulate that you
(and us, if you are not solipsistic) are not turing emulable. No
problem.

Why is that so? Could you clarify this issue?


(I like to separate issues concerning the choice of theory, and issues
concerning propositions made *in* a theory, or accepting that theory).

Absolutely. But I think we have to start with our assumptions and
try to scrutinize them very carefully. After all, we want to devote
our minds to problems arising out of them during our lives, and
thus the initial choice should not be made rashly, but only after
careful review of our current body of knowledge.

Best Regards,
Günther

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Re: Platonism vs Realism WAS: ROADMAP (well, not yet really...

2006-08-16 Thread Tom Caylor

complexitystudies wrote:
 Hi Bruno,

  Again we are discussing the arithmetical realism (which I just assume).

 A bold assumption, if I may say so.

  To be clear on that hypothesis, I do indeed find plausible that the
  number six is perfect, even in the case the branes would not have
  collide, no big bang, no physical universe.
  Six is perfect just because its divisors are 1, 2, and 3; and that
  1+2+3 = 6. Not because I know that. I blieve the contrary: it is the
  independent truth of 6 = sum of its proper divisors than eventually
  I, and you, can learn it.

 I understand your argumentation well, because maybe one or two years
 ago I said nearly the same sentences to colleagues.
 But my exploration into cognitive neuroscience has exposed to me
 how mathematical thinking comes about, and that it is indeed not
 separable from our human brains.


  If you want, numbers are what makes any counting possible.

 Numbers are symbols we create in our minds to communicate with
 fellow individuals about things of importance to us.

 To paraphrase Descartes very liberally:
 We group, therefore we can count.

 Our act of arbitrary grouping (made a bit less arbitrary by
 evolution, which makes us group things which are good to
 our survival, like gazelles and spears or berries) let's us
 count and communicate the number.

 For the universe one apple may not exist, because in effect
 there are only quarks interacting. And at this level indeterminacy
 strikes mercilessly, making it all but meaningless to count quarks.

 Also, concepts like infinity are most definitely not universal
 concepts out there, but products of our mind.


This sounds very much like my view of math.


  It is not because some country put salt on pancakes that pancakes do
  not exist there. Roman where writing 8 -3 for us 8 - 2. It is like
  saying 3*7 = 25 on planet TETRA. They mean 3*7 = 21, they just put it
  differently.

 Of course, symbolisms are arbitrary, but physical instantiation makes
 all the difference.


  No problem. I see you assume a physical universe. I don't. We havejust
  different theories.

 So, which experiment decides which is true? I think platonism derives
 it's power from misconceptions of the human mind.
 The unthinking stone would never construe such a thing as platonism.
 It would just exist - in a very real world ;-)

 Note that if you understand the whole UDA,

 Unfortunately, not yet, but I'm reading!


The UDA is not precise enough for me, maybe because I'm a
mathematician?
I'm waiting for the interview, via the roadmap.


  you should realize that the
 price of assuming a physical universe (and wanting it to be related
 with our experiences *and* our experiments) is to postulate that you
 (and us, if you are not solipsistic) are not turing emulable. No
 problem.

 Why is that so? Could you clarify this issue?


 (I like to separate issues concerning the choice of theory, and issues
 concerning propositions made *in* a theory, or accepting that theory).

 Absolutely. But I think we have to start with our assumptions and
 try to scrutinize them very carefully. After all, we want to devote
 our minds to problems arising out of them during our lives, and
 thus the initial choice should not be made rashly, but only after
 careful review of our current body of knowledge.
 
 Best Regards,
 Günther


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