Re: modal logic's meta axiom

2012-06-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Jun 2012, at 00:38, Russell Standish wrote:


On Tue, Jun 12, 2012 at 08:17:38PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 12 Jun 2012, at 00:47, Russell Standish wrote:


On Thu, Jun 07, 2012 at 01:33:48PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


In fact we have p/p for any p. If you were correct we would have  
[]p

for any p.


This is what I thought you said the meta-axiom stated?

How else do we get p/[]p for Kripke semantics?



Because if p is true in all worlds, then []p is true in all worlds
OK?


No.  I didn't say that. p means p is true in a world. p true in all
worlds would be written []p.


But in logic, if p appears in a deduction, p is true in all worlds.

Take as example a formalization of classical propositional calculus.  
The axioms have to be tautologies, and so are true in all worlds  
(valuations, interpretation). The modus ponens concerves  
tautologicalness, so all theorems (the formula appearing in the  
deduction) are true in all worlds.


And p/[]p means that if p is true in all worlds (like if it is proved)  
then []p is true in all worlds.


If you want to mean that p is true in a world, or the actual world,  
you can say it, but not in deduction. Usually you will name that  
world, by saying that p is true in alpha, at some meta level.


Bruno





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Re: modal logic's meta axiom

2012-06-13 Thread meekerdb

On 6/13/2012 12:14 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 13 Jun 2012, at 00:38, Russell Standish wrote:


On Tue, Jun 12, 2012 at 08:17:38PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 12 Jun 2012, at 00:47, Russell Standish wrote:


On Thu, Jun 07, 2012 at 01:33:48PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


In fact we have p/p for any p. If you were correct we would have []p
for any p.


This is what I thought you said the meta-axiom stated?

How else do we get p/[]p for Kripke semantics?



Because if p is true in all worlds, then []p is true in all worlds
OK?


No.  I didn't say that. p means p is true in a world. p true in all
worlds would be written []p.


But in logic, if p appears in a deduction, p is true in all worlds.


You mean if p is a tautology.  It may be a deduction from premises that are not true in 
all worlds.  Is Russell thinking of p=Socrates is mortal while you're thinking of p=If 
all men are mortal and Socrates is a man then Socrates is mortal.





Take as example a formalization of classical propositional calculus. The axioms have to 
be tautologies, 


An axiom is just a proposition taken to be true for purposes of inference. Why can't 
Socrates is a man be an axiom?


Brent

and so are true in all worlds (valuations, interpretation). The modus ponens concerves 
tautologicalness, so all theorems (the formula appearing in the deduction) are true in 
all worlds.


And p/[]p means that if p is true in all worlds (like if it is proved) then []p is true 
in all worlds.


If you want to mean that p is true in a world, or the actual world, you can say it, but 
not in deduction. Usually you will name that world, by saying that p is true in alpha, 
at some meta level.


Bruno





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Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
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Re: modal logic's meta axiom

2012-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Jun 2012, at 00:47, Russell Standish wrote:


On Thu, Jun 07, 2012 at 01:33:48PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


In fact we have p/p for any p. If you were correct we would have []p
for any p.


This is what I thought you said the meta-axiom stated?

How else do we get p/[]p for Kripke semantics?



Because if p is true in all worlds, then []p is true in all worlds OK?  
If p is true in all worlds (validity) then p is true in particular in  
all worlds accessible from alpha, and so []p is true in alpha, and  
this works for any alpha, so []p is true in all worlds.


 In a deduction, without proviso, p means that we have already proved  
p, (or in some case, that it is an assumption but you have to be  
careful).
The meta-semantics of a rule is dependent on the theory, and the way  
we define what constitutes a proof. In modal logic  it usually mean,  
in p/[]p that p occur at the end of a proof.


Self-reference is confusing because deduction p/q get represented by  
[](p-q), or []p-[]q.


[]p is the machine's language for the machine asserts (believes,  
proves) p. All universal machine, when they asserts p, will soon or  
later asserts []p. So []p - [][]p is true about all universal  
(correct) machines.


The löbian machine are those for which []p - [][]p is not only true,  
but they actually can justify why they know that []p - [][]p. It is  
the kind of truth they can communicate.


So the fact p/q is modeled by []p-[]q, in the language of the machine.

Löbian machines are close for the Löb rule. If they asserts []p - p,  
they will inevitably asserts soon or later p.
And they know that, which means they can prove []([]p-p)-[]p, for  
each p arithmetical sentences, in the arithmetical interpretations.


Bruno





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Re: modal logic's meta axiom

2012-06-12 Thread Russell Standish
On Tue, Jun 12, 2012 at 08:17:38PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 On 12 Jun 2012, at 00:47, Russell Standish wrote:
 
 On Thu, Jun 07, 2012 at 01:33:48PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 In fact we have p/p for any p. If you were correct we would have []p
 for any p.
 
 This is what I thought you said the meta-axiom stated?
 
 How else do we get p/[]p for Kripke semantics?
 
 
 Because if p is true in all worlds, then []p is true in all worlds
 OK? 

No.  I didn't say that. p means p is true in a world. p true in all
worlds would be written []p.


-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: modal logic's meta axiom

2012-06-11 Thread Russell Standish
On Thu, Jun 07, 2012 at 01:33:48PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 In fact we have p/p for any p. If you were correct we would have []p
 for any p.

This is what I thought you said the meta-axiom stated?

How else do we get p/[]p for Kripke semantics?

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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modal logic's meta axiom

2012-06-07 Thread Russell Standish
Bruno,

I've deleted the previous thread, so I've started a new one on modal
logic's metaaxiom.

IIUC, if I have p (true in a world), and by dint of whatever
convoluted steps, I have

p
--, 
q

then it is also true that []q (q must be true in all worlds)?

Could this also be written

p
---  ?
[]q


Cheers
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Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: modal logic's meta axiom

2012-06-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Jun 2012, at 01:58, Russell Standish wrote:


Bruno,

I've deleted the previous thread,


?

It is possible to delete thread? Including my posts? That should not  
be possible.




so I've started a new one on modal
logic's metaaxiom.


OK.




IIUC, if I have p (true in a world), and by dint of whatever
convoluted steps, I have

p
--,
q

then it is also true that []q (q must be true in all worlds)?


Not necessarily. It can depend on what axioms are used on p/q. Nor  
is it necessary that you get p - q, nor p- []q. Modal logic does not  
obey to the deduction theorem.


In fact we have p/p for any p. If you were correct we would have []p  
for any p.





Could this also be written

p
---  ?
[]q



I don't see any reason for this.

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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