Re: Physics and Tautology.

2012-08-06 Thread socra...@bezeqint.net
   Physics and Tautology.
=.
1
Where did the masses for ‘ big bang ‘ come from ?
These masses came from surrounding space.
2
Where did these  masses from surrounding space come from ?
These masses came from ‘big bang’.
===.
Why is he  poor ?
Because he is stupid.
Why is he stupid?
Because he is poor.
===.
 The  ‘big bang’ doesn’t give answer to the question:
where did  the  mass come from ?
To understand this we need go out from ‘ big bang’ .
But ‘ the big bang  theory is an effort to explain what happened
at the very beginning of our universe. Prior to that moment there
 was nothing;’
So, . . where do we go out ?
==.
Israel  Socratus.

…

So, . . where do we go out ?
==.
If we go out of mass then it can be only one possibility -
- we will enter into an empty space.
==.
‘ A world without masses, without electrons, without an
electromagnetic field is an empty world. Such an empty
world is flat. But if masses appear, if charged particles
appear, if an electromagnetic field appears then our world
becomes curved. Its geometry is Riemannian, that is,
non- Euclidian.’
/ Book ‘Albert Einstein’ The page 116 . by Leopold Infeld. /

==.

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Re: Physics and Tautology.

2012-08-02 Thread ronaldheld
If this universe has zero net energy charge and angular momemtum, I see no 
problem being created via a chaotic inflation scenario.

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Re: Physics and Tautology.

2012-08-02 Thread Stephen P. King

Hi Ronald,

I have a severe problem with this entire thread!

What exactly determines the particular properties, such as charge, 
angular momentum, mass, etc., of this universe? Why are we assuming that 
the choice of what went into the zero net sum is a prior definite and 
constrained. The question of the universe here is not so simple that it 
can be represented the same way that we can note that 1 - 1 = 0. Even in 
arithmetic model, we have to offer within our explanations what where 
the summands http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/summands#English that let 
to the sum of net zero. For example, 5 - 5 = 0, 4 - 4 = 0, etc. x - x = 
0. What is x? We cannot assume without discussion what is x!
It seems to me that this entire thread is infected with post hoc 
ergo propter hoc reasoning and we should reconsider exactly what is 
being contemplated. I suggest reading of a good book on Cosmology, such 
as Principles of Physical Cosmology by Phillip James Edwin Peebles 
http://books.google.com/books/about/Principles_of_Physical_Cosmology.html?id=AmlEt6TJ6jAC, 
where one finds a very nice discussion of these issues of without the 
nonsense of logical fallacies.



On 8/2/2012 2:49 PM, ronaldheld wrote:

If this universe has zero net energy charge and angular momemtum, I see no 
problem being created via a chaotic inflation scenario.




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Stephen

Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
~ Francis Bacon

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Re: Physics and Tautology.

2012-08-02 Thread meekerdb

On 8/2/2012 12:18 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

Hi Ronald,

I have a severe problem with this entire thread!

What exactly determines the particular properties, such as charge, angular momentum, 
mass, etc., of this universe?


They are conserved quantities, so if they are zero now it follows that they were zero at 
the origin, which suggests the universe came from nothing.


Why are we assuming that the choice of what went into the zero net sum is a prior 
definite and constrained. The question of the universe here is not so simple that it can 
be represented the same way that we can note that 1 - 1 = 0. Even in arithmetic model, 
we have to offer within our explanations what where the summands 
http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/summands#English that let to the sum of net zero. For 
example, 5 - 5 = 0, 4 - 4 = 0, etc. x - x = 0. What is x? We cannot assume without 
discussion what is x!


Sure we can.  That's the advantage of mathematics, x-x=0 regardless of what 
number is x.

It seems to me that this entire thread is infected with post hoc ergo propter hoc 
reasoning and we should reconsider exactly what is being contemplated. I suggest reading 
of a good book on Cosmology, such as Principles of Physical Cosmology by Phillip James 
Edwin Peebles 
http://books.google.com/books/about/Principles_of_Physical_Cosmology.html?id=AmlEt6TJ6jAC, 
where one finds a very nice discussion of these issues of without the nonsense of 
logical fallacies.




There's no logical fallacy in noting that a universe that came from nothing should have 
zero net energy and other conserved quantities.


Peebles book is pretty old, so it's not going to include knowledge of the CMB from WMAP 
and COBE or the discovery that the expansion of the universe is accelerating or the 
holographic principle.  I'd recommend Vic Stenger's The Comprehensible Cosmos, Sean 
Carroll's From Eternity to Here, or Alex Vilenkin's Many Worlds in One.


Brent



On 8/2/2012 2:49 PM, ronaldheld wrote:

If this universe has zero net energy charge and angular momemtum, I see no 
problem being created via a chaotic inflation scenario.




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Onward!

Stephen

Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
~ Francis Bacon
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Re: Physics and Tautology.

2012-08-02 Thread Stephen P. King

On 8/2/2012 5:06 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 8/2/2012 12:18 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

Hi Ronald,

I have a severe problem with this entire thread!

What exactly determines the particular properties, such as 
charge, angular momentum, mass, etc., of this universe?


They are conserved quantities, so if they are zero now it follows that 
they were zero at the origin, which suggests the universe came from 
nothing.


Hi Brent,

I think that that is the consensus opinion of the members of this 
list.




Why are we assuming that the choice of what went into the zero net 
sum is a prior definite and constrained. The question of the universe 
here is not so simple that it can be represented the same way that we 
can note that 1 - 1 = 0. Even in arithmetic model, we have to offer 
within our explanations what where the summands 
http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/summands#English that let to the sum 
of net zero. For example, 5 - 5 = 0, 4 - 4 = 0, etc. x - x = 0. What 
is x? We cannot assume without discussion what is x!


Sure we can.  That's the advantage of mathematics, x-x=0 regardless of 
what number is x.


But do you see my point? Anything and everything can be generated 
from zero in this way. The hard question is how is it that we only 
observe a tiny finite fragment of this infinity?




It seems to me that this entire thread is infected with post hoc 
ergo propter hoc reasoning and we should reconsider exactly what is 
being contemplated. I suggest reading of a good book on Cosmology, 
such as Principles of Physical Cosmology by Phillip James Edwin 
Peebles 
http://books.google.com/books/about/Principles_of_Physical_Cosmology.html?id=AmlEt6TJ6jAC, 
where one finds a very nice discussion of these issues of without the 
nonsense of logical fallacies.




There's no logical fallacy in noting that a universe that came from 
nothing should have zero net energy and other conserved quantities.


The fallacy is to assume that what is the case must always be the case.



Peebles book is pretty old, so it's not going to include knowledge of 
the CMB from WMAP and COBE or the discovery that the expansion of the 
universe is accelerating or the holographic principle.  I'd recommend 
Vic Stenger's The Comprehensible Cosmos, Sean Carroll's From 
Eternity to Here, or Alex Vilenkin's Many Worlds in One.


Nah. I like Pebbles because it is hard nose empiricism and openly 
so. No speculations unless labeled as such.




Brent



On 8/2/2012 2:49 PM, ronaldheld wrote:

If this universe has zero net energy charge and angular momemtum, I see no 
problem being created via a chaotic inflation scenario.




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Stephen

Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
~ Francis Bacon
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Stephen

Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
~ Francis Bacon

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Physics and Tautology.

2012-08-01 Thread socra...@bezeqint.net
Physics and Tautology.
=.
1
Where did the masses for ‘ big bang ‘ come from ?
These masses came from surrounding space.
2
Where did these  masses from surrounding space come from ?
These masses came from ‘big bang’.
===.
Why he is poor ?
Because he is stupid.
Why he is stupid?
Because he is poor.
===.

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Re: Physics and Tautology.

2012-08-01 Thread Brian Tenneson
Isn't every (alleged) proof of something's truth just a list of things
(steps) implied by the previous statement until one arrives at the final
statement...a tautology?
Briefly: isn't every proof just a (possibly lengthy) list of tautologies?
Therefore, using that notion, calling out alleged proofs of masses coming
from (or not coming from) the big bang and what not specifically is,
actually, redundant.

On Wed, Aug 1, 2012 at 1:50 PM, socra...@bezeqint.net socra...@bezeqint.net
 wrote:

 Physics and Tautology.
 =.
 1
 Where did the masses for ‘ big bang ‘ come from ?
 These masses came from surrounding space.
 2
 Where did these  masses from surrounding space come from ?
 These masses came from ‘big bang’.
 ===.
 Why he is poor ?
 Because he is stupid.
 Why he is stupid?
 Because he is poor.
 ===.

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Re: tautology

1999-12-06 Thread GSLevy

In a message dated 12/05/1999 8:57:28 PM Pacific Standard Time, 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:


  
  There is an obvious normalisation problem with the usual model of
  branching histories in MWI (I see from your signature you at least
  accept that!). Since the total number of histories (belonging to say a
  particular observer) is some exponentially growing function of time,
  and extends indefinitely into the future, the total measure of an
  observer is unnormalisable, without some renormalisation applied at
  each timestep (which seems rather arbitrary - unless you've got some
  better ideas). Your measure argument, which is a variation of the
  Leslie-Carter Doomsday argument, implicitly relies on a normalised
  measure distribution of observer moments. I seem to remember this
  normalisation problem was discussed earlier this year, but I'm not
  sure (without rereading large tracts of the archives)
  
  Now, with RSSA, this normalisation problem is not an issue, as only
  the relative measures between successive time steps is important, not
  the overall measure.
  

I agree that there is a problem with the conventional concept of the MWI 
which support an asymmetrical view of time. According to this concept, 
branching generates an ever increasing number of worlds and identities. ID 
splitting is allowed but ID merging is not. Yet I find much more satisfying 
to believe in a time symmetrical world in which spitting and merging occur 
with equal frequency. 

Just as an aside I would like to go back to Bruno's amoeba analogy in which 
he illustrated the feeling one has in a splitting Many Worlds with the 
question: how does it feel to be an amoeba after it splits? Using the same 
analogy to illustrate merging worlds, I could ask how does it feel to be an 
egg after it's fertilized?  (reminds me of one of Woody Allen's movies. :-))

George Levy




Re: tautology

1999-11-04 Thread Jacques M. Mallah

On Thu, 4 Nov 1999, Russell Standish wrote:
  On Tue, 26 Oct 1999, Russell Standish wrote:
  [JM wrote] [BTW I am getting tired of RS omitting the attribution]
 
 ^^^ Blame my email software. I almost always leave the .signatures in
 to make it obvious who I'm responding to.

Since your software is bad, you should add it manually.

  It is obvious that p(Y1X) = p(Y1Z), because in all instances in
 
 It is not obvious, for the same reason that p(Y1X) = p(Y2X) is not obvious.
 If QTI is true, then it is clearly not true. Don't assume what you're
 trying to prove.

Perhaps I should have been a little more clear.  I am discussing
the ASSA, not trying to prove it but to show that it is self consistent.
You are right in the sense that I left something out.  I am
assuming a reasonable measure distribution based on the physical
situation.  For example, the measure could be proprtional to the number of
implementations of a computation, as I like to assume.
It is also possible to assume an unreasonable measure
distribution, like the RSSA.  This of course would require new, strange
and complicated laws of psycho-physics.
So what I am really doing is showing that (ASSA + reasonable
measure (RM)) is self consistent.  However, the way we have been using the
term ASSA, RM has almost always been assumed.
In any case it is always true that some way of calculating the
measure distribution is needed.  Your claim was that the RSSA is needed.
My example shows that RM does the job.

 - - - - - - -
  Jacques Mallah ([EMAIL PROTECTED])
   Graduate Student / Many Worlder / Devil's Advocate
I know what no one else knows - 'Runaway Train', Soul Asylum
My URL: http://pages.nyu.edu/~jqm1584/




Re: tautology

1999-10-25 Thread Jacques M. Mallah

On Wed, 20 Oct 1999, Russell Standish wrote:
 The measure of Jack Mallah is irrelevant to this situation. The
 probability of Jack Mallah seeing Joe Schmoe with a large age is
 proportional to Joe Schmoe's measure - because - Joe Schmoe is
 independent of Jack Mallah. However, Jack Mallah is clearly not
 independent of Jack Mallah, and predictions of the probability of Jack
 Mallah seeing a Jack Mallah with large age cannot be made with the
 existing assumptions of ASSA. The claim is that RSSA has the
 additional assumptions required.

That's total BS.
I'll review, although I've said it so many times, how effective
probabilities work in the ASSA.  You can take this as a definition of
ASSA, so you can NOT deny that this is how things would work if the ASSA
is true.  The only thing you could try, is to claim that the ASSA is
false.
The effective probability of an observation with characteristic
'X' is (measure of observations with 'X') / (total measure).
The conditional effective probability that an observation has
characteristic Y, given that it has characteristic X, is
p(Y|X) = (measure of observations with X and with Y) / (measure with X).
OK, these definitions are true in general.  Let's apply them to
the situation in question.
'X' = being Jack Mallah and seeing an age for Joe Shmoe and for
Jack Mallah, and seeing that Joe also sees both ages and sees that Jack
sees both ages.
Suppose that objectively (e.g. to a 3rd party) Jack and Joe have
their ages drawn from the same type of distribution.  (i.e. they are the
same species).
Case 1: 'Y1' = the age seen for Joe is large.
Case 2: 'Y2' = the age seen for Jack is large.
Clearly P(Y1|X) = P(Y2|X).

 - - - - - - -
  Jacques Mallah ([EMAIL PROTECTED])
   Graduate Student / Many Worlder / Devil's Advocate
I know what no one else knows - 'Runaway Train', Soul Asylum
My URL: http://pages.nyu.edu/~jqm1584/





Re: tautology

1999-10-08 Thread Marchal

Chris Maloney wrote:
This harkens back to a thread I started some time ago about our universe
being the one, or among the ones, that admit the most SASs.  Clearly the
number of observer-moments among the human race is vast, if you assume the
MWI.  Most people replied that they thought it was of the order aleph-0
(countable) or C (the continuum).  If you assume comp, and that any two
implementations of the same Turing machine are identical (which I would)
then the number must be aleph-0, right?

Not right. There are reasons with comp to quantify on the infinite 
histories of machines. So with comp the answer should be C.

Bruno




Re: tautology

1999-09-15 Thread Jacques M. Mallah

On Wed, 15 Sep 1999, Russell Standish wrote:
[JM wrote]
  Obviously you don't understand.  With the ASSA, it is always
  possible to find the conditional probability of an observation given a
  suitable condition.  Choosing a condition and asking a question about it
  changes nothing about the real situation.
  The difference between the ASSA and RSSA really becomes apparent
  when the ASSA predicts nonconservation of measure as a function of time.
  Obviously this does not happen in most everyday, nonfatal situations.
 
 Unless you've changed your spots Jacques, you are starting to become
 incoherent. ASSA is not defined with reference to time, so therefore
 cannot make any statements about it. The RSSA is.

What are you talking about?  I really don't know.
The ASSA states, and always has, that the effective probability of
an observer moment is proportional to it measure.  Time doesn't enter
this definition, in the same way that seeing a color doesn't enter; the
general rule needs no modification to be applied in either case.
It was super-obvious in my post that when I talked about a function
of time above I was referring to the fact that the measure of observer
moments along a computational continuation varies with time.
The RSSA, as far as I can see, is not defined at all.  I have
tried to extropolate the descriptions you guys give into some kind of
coherent position for me to attack, but it seems to me that you often
contradict yourselves while denying any such contradictions.  The role of
time in the RSSA is a case in point.

BTW, while I'm posting I might as well ask, if you guys are so
darn sure consciousness is continuous and that it somehow means it cannot
end, how come you seem to have no problem with birth?  It seems to me that
your arguments would apply equally in that direction.  How come you have
no trouble picturing a boundary for it in the past?  I'm sure you'll come
up with some BS answer but this once again shows the foolishness of your
position.

 - - - - - - -
  Jacques Mallah ([EMAIL PROTECTED])
   Graduate Student / Many Worlder / Devil's Advocate
I know what no one else knows - 'Runaway Train', Soul Asylum
My URL: http://pages.nyu.edu/~jqm1584/




Re: tautology

1999-09-06 Thread Jacques M. Mallah

On Mon, 6 Sep 1999, Russell Standish wrote:
  On Fri, 3 Sep 1999, Russell Standish wrote:
 Then maybe I misunderstood you. A tautology is a term with redundant
 parts, ie it is equivalent to some subset of itself. I took your
 statement that ASSA is a tautology to mean that ASSA is equivalent
 to SSA (symbolically ASSA = SSA). I directly contradict this in my
 first sentence.

 [JM wrote]
From WordNet (r) 1.6 (wn)
tautology n 1: (in logic) a statement that is necessarily true; the
statement `he is brave or he is not brave' is a tautology 2: useless
repetition; to say that something is `adequate enough' is a tautology 

I was not aware of meaning 2 of the word, while I have
frequently encountered the word used for meaning 1.

   The definition I gave and the one you quoted are equivalent.
  
  I quoted two very different definitions.  The one you gave is
  equivalent to #2.  The one I meant in my 'zombie wives' post was #1.
 
 Sorry, I missed the second definition. It is merely a colloquial
 generalisation of definition 1, and is definitely the one I was using.

Generalization?  That's BS.  They are totally different.
Example of def. 1:  A or not A
Example of def. 2:  A and A

 - - - - - - -
  Jacques Mallah ([EMAIL PROTECTED])
   Graduate Student / Many Worlder / Devil's Advocate
I know what no one else knows - 'Runaway Train', Soul Asylum
My URL: http://pages.nyu.edu/~jqm1584/