Re: [Finale] [OT] etymological origin of royalties?

2007-02-06 Thread shirling neueweise


yes, but i'm talking about performance royalties.  that is 
mechanical (distribution) rights.  although of course in some 
languages royalties means essentially rights without specifications 
as to WHAT rights and would have to be clarified in context.


Ah, but your question spoke to late 18th, early 19th century 
practices.  The terms you're now using are all 20th century.


quite possibly, yes probably; i meant i am interested in the payments 
to composers for the performance of their works.  any reference to 
the topic would be appreciated, but based on literature around the 
varying topics of patronage and development of the public concert it 
would seem that this practice - paying composers for individual 
performances of individual works - would have only begun in the time 
of mozart through beethoven because of changing modes of social 
structures and the shift from direct to indirect patronage to public 
concerts.   in most cases in this transition period (and later to 
some extent) the payments to the composer (the more significant ones 
anyways) would have come directly from the extended royalty, the 
ennobled class until the development of the true public concert in 
the early-mid 1800s.  i read that the first concert hall explicitly 
built for music was 1830 in vienna...


[...] And of course those terms would have absolutely nothing to do 
with Royalty.


that's what confuses me, and the OED hasn't really shed any light on 
the situation.


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Re: [Finale] [OT] etymological origin of royalties?

2007-02-06 Thread shirling neueweise


i read that the first concert hall explicitly built for music was 
1830 in vienna...


it is possible that this may have been specific to the germanic 
lands, i'm not sure.


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Re: [Finale] [OT] etymological origin of royalties?

2007-02-06 Thread shirling neueweise


in most cases in this transition period (and later to some extent) 
the payments to the composer (the more significant ones anyways) 
would have come directly from the extended royalty


i meant the more significant payments, not the more significant 
composers, would have come... since middle-class establishments 
typically paid the composers less than could be expected by the 
aristocracy.


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Re: [Finale] [OT] etymological origin of royalties?

2007-02-06 Thread John Howell

At 4:11 PM +0100 2/6/07, shirling  neueweise wrote:
yes, but i'm talking about performance royalties.  that is 
mechanical (distribution) rights.  although of course in some 
languages royalties means essentially rights without 
specifications as to WHAT rights and would have to be clarified in 
context.


Ah, but your question spoke to late 18th, early 19th century 
practices.  The terms you're now using are all 20th century.


quite possibly, yes probably; i meant i am interested in the 
payments to composers for the performance of their works.  any 
reference to the topic would be appreciated, but based on literature 
around the varying topics of patronage and development of the public 
concert it would seem that this practice - paying composers for 
individual performances of individual works - would have only begun 
in the time of mozart through beethoven because of changing modes of 
social structures and the shift from direct to indirect patronage to 
public concerts.


OK, thanks for that.  I'm getting a better feel for what you're 
after.  But I have trouble equating concert admission fees, whether 
for an individual concert or for a subscription series, with 
royalty payments.  The former do not, after all, apply to 
individual works, but rather to whatever is presented in that 
concert.  The latter, as I mentioned, did not exist in the law (in 
the U.S.) until the copyright revision of 1909.  Yes, we know that 
Mozart promoted his own concerts during his last 10 years in Vienna, 
and that certainly qualifies, but what about the case where a 
promoter or producer put on concerts and would have used music by 
several composers, some newly commissioned, some existing, with no 
copyright protection for the existing music?  And of course Beethoven 
is known for soliciting patronage for his works AFTER composing them.


   in most cases in this transition period (and later to some 
extent) the payments to the composer (the more significant ones 
anyways) would have come directly from the extended royalty, the 
ennobled class until the development of the true public concert in 
the early-mid 1800s.  i read that the first concert hall explicitly 
built for music was 1830 in vienna...


Hmm.  I thought that the Gewandhaus Orchestra was founded around 
1781.  Was there no Gewandhaus then?  Or perhaps was it privately 
organized and owned by the aristocracy?


Very interesting questions, for sure.

John


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Re: [Finale] [OT] etymological origin of royalties?

2007-02-05 Thread Dennis Bathory-Kitsz
At 03:04 PM 2/5/2007 +0100, shirling  neueweise wrote:
anyone know where the word originates? i'm wondering if it has to do 
with the private and quasi-private public concerts held in 
aristocractic-supported subscription series common in the late 18th 
and early 19th c. where collections would be made for the composer 
from the audience members.

Your time guess on current usage appears to be close. The Online
Etymological Dictionary is a pretty good place for this stuff:

http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=royalty

royalty
1398, office or position of a sovereign, from O.Fr. roialte, from
V.L. *regalitatem (nom. *regalitas), from L. regalis (see royal). Sense of
prerogatives or rights granted by a sovereign to an individual or
corporation is from 1483. From that evolved more general senses, such as
payment to a landowner for use of a mine (1839), and ultimately payment
to an author, composer, etc. for sale or use of his or her work (1857).



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Re: [Finale] [OT] etymological origin of royalties?

2007-02-05 Thread John Howell

At 3:04 PM +0100 2/5/07, shirling  neueweise wrote:
anyone know where the word originates? i'm wondering if it has to do 
with the private and quasi-private public concerts held in 
aristocractic-supported subscription series common in the late 18th 
and early 19th c. where collections would be made for the composer 
from the audience members.  or am i way off mark?


david? andrew? i'm sure you guys have some info on this...


I've never thought about this, actually, but isn't it more likely to 
go back to royal privileges (i.e. monopolies) and the bribes 
necessary to secure same?  The O.E.D. would probably go into the 
etymology.  What are such payments called in other countries?


John


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Re: [Finale] [OT] etymological origin of royalties?

2007-02-05 Thread shirling neueweise


I've never thought about this, actually, but 
isn't it more likely to go back to royal 
privileges (i.e. monopolies) and the bribes 
necessary to secure same?


yeah, i thought there should be some connection 
to the court, but so far nothing backs it up.


interesting, if what you suggest were the case, 
then the first payment originally went in the 
other direction (!), to secure the rights of 
exclusive exploitation for the rights holder for 
a defined time period.  this was certainly 
typical for objects, inventions, but doesn't 
quite apply to music, at least it wouldn't seem 
so.


in any case, according to others' definitions and 
the little i've found on the web (specific to the 
word itself), there seems to be a gap between the 
royal connection of such rights and its 
recorded use to mean payments made to rights 
holder.



What are such payments called in other countries?


F redevances (to owe back in a sense)
D entries include: Patentgebühr (patent fee); 
Tantiem; Abgaben (? from babelfish...)

I diritti d'autore (author rights)
E derechos (rights)

are these all correct? are there other words in these languages?

yeah english is the only language where the 
possible connection to the court is apparent in 
the word.


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Re: [Finale] [OT] etymological origin of royalties?

2007-02-05 Thread John Howell

At 7:49 PM +0100 2/5/07, shirling  neueweise wrote:


interesting, if what you suggest were the case, then the first 
payment originally went in the other direction (!), to secure the 
rights of exclusive exploitation for the rights holder for a defined 
time period.  this was certainly typical for objects, inventions, 
but doesn't quite apply to music, at least it wouldn't seem so.


Au contraire!  Petrucci, in Venice, held a monopoly lasting 20 years 
on the printing of part music and lute tablature, with his first 
print (Odhecaton A) appearing in 1501.  And I think it was Tallis 
and his student, Byrd, who had Liz's monopoly on the printing of 
music and music paper, later passed on to Byrd and HIS student Morley.


in any case, according to others' definitions and the little i've 
found on the web (specific to the word itself), there seems to be a 
gap between the royal connection of such rights and its recorded 
use to mean payments made to rights holder.


Not exactly the same, no, but similar in guaranteeing a profit to the holder.

Of course I'm making all this up!!

John


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Virginia Tech Department of Music
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Vox (540) 231-8411  Fax (540) 231-5034
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Re: [Finale] [OT] etymological origin of royalties?

2007-02-05 Thread shirling neueweise


Au contraire!  Petrucci, in Venice, held a monopoly lasting 20 years 
on the printing of part music and lute tablature, with his first 
print (Odhecaton A) appearing in 1501.  And I think it was Tallis 
and his student, Byrd, who had Liz's monopoly on the printing of 
music and music paper, later passed on to Byrd and HIS student 
Morley.


yes, but i'm talking about performance royalties.  that is mechanical 
(distribution) rights.  although of course in some languages 
royalties means essentially rights without specifications as to WHAT 
rights and would have to be clarified in context.


--

shirling  neueweise ... new music publishers
mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] :.../ http://newmusicnotation.com
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Re: [Finale] [OT] etymological origin of royalties?

2007-02-05 Thread John Howell

At 12:34 AM +0100 2/6/07, shirling  neueweise wrote:
Au contraire!  Petrucci, in Venice, held a monopoly lasting 20 
years on the printing of part music and lute tablature, with his 
first print (Odhecaton A) appearing in 1501.  And I think it was 
Tallis and his student, Byrd, who had Liz's monopoly on the 
printing of music and music paper, later passed on to Byrd and HIS 
student Morley.


yes, but i'm talking about performance royalties.  that is 
mechanical (distribution) rights.  although of course in some 
languages royalties means essentially rights without specifications 
as to WHAT rights and would have to be clarified in context.


Ah, but your question spoke to late 18th, early 19th century 
practices.  The terms you're now using are all 20th century.  Under 
U.S. law, performance royalties didn't exist until 1909, and 
mechanical rights refer strictly to recordings, and have nothing to 
do with distribution of sheet music.  Three separate things, treated 
three separate ways in the law.  Yeah, it's complicated!  And of 
course those terms would have absolutely nothing to do with Royalty.


John



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Virginia Tech Department of Music
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Vox (540) 231-8411  Fax (540) 231-5034
(mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED])
http://www.music.vt.edu/faculty/howell/howell.html
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