Re: [License-discuss] System 76's BeanBooks Public License v1.0

2013-09-18 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Wed, 18 Sep 2013, John Cowan wrote:

Sec. 4.3 strikes me as actually conceptually somewhat interesting,
inasmuch as many commercial lawyers have argued that this type of
clause is often implicit in software that contains a protect trademark
embedded in the software and not removed by a downstream licensee.

In this case, however, Section 4.2 prevents you from removing the
protected trademark.  Taking the two clauses together, you are effectively
prevented from making commercial use of the software without paying for
the trademark license, which obviously contravenes clauses 6 and 7 of
the OSD.  So this license is on its face not Open Source.


It says:

4.3 - Commercial distribution of the Software requires a
trademark license agreement and you may be required to
pay. Using the Software within a corporation or entity is not
considered commercial distribution. This license does not grant
You rights to use any party's name, logo, or trademarks, except
solely as necessary to comply with Section 4.2.


Wouldn't the except solely as necessary to comply with section 4.2 clause
make it okay?  Section 4.2 prevents you from removing the protected
trademark, and section 4.3 allows you to use the trademark under those
circumstances.
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Re: [License-discuss] License which requires watermarking? (Attribution Provision)

2013-01-03 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Wed, 2 Jan 2013, Lawrence Rosen wrote:

Regardless of whether a library is licensed under the GPL or the LGPL, a
licensee will have to disclose *source code* of the library and *source
code* of derivative works of the library.


If you agree with the FSF's position on what a derivative work is, a work
that links to a LGPL library is a derivative work but you are not required
to release source for it.
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Re: [License-discuss] License which requires watermarking? (Attribution Provision)

2013-01-02 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Tue, 1 Jan 2013, Lawrence Rosen wrote:

Some people use ordinary GPL on libraries with the intent of crippling
competing commercial reuse (since any competitors have to release
their source and competitors wouldn't want to do that).


Really? That's not wise.

How would the choice of license affect the *legal* determination of whether
the resulting work is or is not a derivative work for which source code must
be disclosed?


The choice of license affects whether source code must be disclosed at all.
If the library was under the LGPL, the competitor would not have to provide
source.
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Re: [License-discuss] Permissive but anti-patent license

2013-01-02 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Wed, 2 Jan 2013, John Funnell wrote:

I do believe a clause can apply retroactively. If not, I could
download the Linux kernel with good intentions, wait a week and then
turn evil and, with that copy, violate GPL exactly as I pleased.


The requirements of the GPL apply when making copies.  If you turned evil a
week later, that wouldn't matter, since the GPL wouldn't actually require that
you do anything, as long as you don't start making copies after you turn evil.
It wouldn't apply retroactively--the copies that you already made are still
good.
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Re: [License-discuss] License which requires watermarking? (Attribution Provision)

2013-01-01 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Mon, 31 Dec 2012, Rick Moen wrote:

I conclude that, in general, the overwhelming majority of such
entrepreneurs are thus seeking the crippling of competing commercial
reuse -- not just attribution.  So, OSI should give them the bum's rush.


Some people use ordinary GPL on libraries with the intent of crippling
competing commercial reuse (since any competitors have to release their source
and competitors wouldn't want to do that).  Is the GPL also considered unfree
when applied to libraries?
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Re: [License-discuss] Permissive but anti-patent license

2012-12-31 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Sun, 30 Dec 2012, John Funnell wrote:

When a user makes their first copy, their acceptance of the
anti-patent license is also an agreement to the restrictions on usage.
If a US person violates this by entering into an agreement for a
limited-scope patent license, they violate their original copyright
license and are thus not allowed to copy, own or use the software.


But can it retroactively invalidate an existing copy?

If I write a license saying someone can only copy the software if they
are a vegetarian, and they copy the software and start eating meat later on,
they still were a vegetarian at the moment they copied the software.  You
won't be able to use the copy restriction like a use restriction because the
copy restriction only applies to conditions that are true when the copy was
made.
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Re: OSL 2.0 and linking of libraries

2004-04-02 Thread Ken Arromdee
On Fri, 2 Apr 2004, Peter Prohaska wrote:
 On 1) This way, it doesn't matter what derived work is anymore because
 we just define it. That should reduce the FAQ size.

But isn't derived work a legal term?  Open source licenses can put limits
on derived works since if you reject the license you have no rights to make
derived works at all.  If you define derived work to be something broader
than what the law says, this is no longer true and the license doesn't function
as intended.

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Re: Silly question: are usage restrictions covered by the OSD?

2003-10-16 Thread Ken Arromdee
On Thu, 16 Oct 2003, Chris F Clark wrote:
 Still, I am interested in other peoples impressions of this argument.
 The reason being, I am considering drafting a license which makes
 approximately that distinction.  It is a license that is viral like
 the GPL except that it defines its point of requiring open sourcing
 of the resulting works the point of derivation rather than the point
 of redistribution. That is, one must release an open source copy of the
 derived work when one creates such a derived work, not only when one
 distributes such a derived work.  (There are many details to work out,
 which is why I have not submitted it for review.)

So when someone's editing a file each time they write out the file they have
to send the result to other people?  Or does this have to be done each time
the person inserts a character, even if he doesn't write it out?

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Re: Berkeley DB License

2002-11-01 Thread Ken Arromdee
On Fri, 1 Nov 2002, Bennett Todd wrote:
 Does the new frontmatter at
 URL:http://www.sleepycat.com/licensing.html where they define
 redistribute to include use in multiple different physical
 locations, even within the same organization affect their license's
 Open Source Definition compliance?

I don't know about this specific case, but in general, it obviously has to.
What if someone had a license which defined redistribute to be use without
paying the author a thousand dollars?

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Re: OSL Version 1.0 dated 8/2/2002

2002-08-02 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Fri, 2 Aug 2002, Lawrence E. Rosen wrote:
 I decided to borrow some of their wording and added an external
 deployment provision to the OSL.  Here is the clause I added:
   ...  As an express
   condition for the grants of license hereunder, You
   agree that any External Deployment by You shall be
   deemed a distribution and shall be licensed to all
   under the terms of this License, as prescribed in
   section 1(c) herein.

Someone could refuse to accept your license (thus also refusing to accept
your definition of distribution).  If he refuses to accept your license, he
could then Externally Deploy the code without being bound by the license.
This provision accomplishes little.

The GPL and similar licenses can put conditions on distribution because
if you don't accept the license you have no right to distribution at all.
Redefining distribution doesn't work--someone who doesn't accept the license
only lacks the right to distribution as originally defined by the law, not
as redefined in the license.

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RE: OSL Version 1.0 dated 8/2/2002

2002-08-02 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Fri, 2 Aug 2002, Lawrence E. Rosen wrote:
  Someone could refuse to accept your license (thus also 
  refusing to accept your definition of distribution).  If he 
  refuses to accept your license, he could then Externally 
  Deploy the code without being bound by the license. This 
  provision accomplishes little.
 Are you suggesting that the following provision in the OSL won't work to
 prevent the copying that is essential for use of a software program?
   8. Acceptance and Termination.  Nothing else but this
   License (or another written agreement between Licensor
   and You) grants You permission to create Derivative 
   Works based upon the Original Work, and any attempt
   to do so except under the terms of this License 
   (or another written agreement between Licensor and
   You) is expressly prohibited by U.S. copyright law,
   the equivalent laws of other countries, and by
   international treaty.  Therefore, by exercising any
   of the rights granted to You in Section 1 herein,
   You indicate Your acceptance of this License and all
   of its terms and conditions.  This license shall
   terminate immediately upon Your failure to honor
   the proviso in Section 1(c) herein.  

Yes, I'm suggesting exactly that.  Copying of the program into memory in order
to run it is permitted by law.  The user may therefore do so without accepting
the license.  The clause above says you can't make derivative works without
accepting the license, not that you can't make copies.

(And even if you argue that copies are derivative works--IANAL, but I don't
know if you could get away with that--that would simply mean that that clause
is wrong.  Section 117 of the US copyright law lets you copy the program into
memory in order to use it.  If you're going to consider that a derivative
work, then yes, something else *does* let you make derivative works.)

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RE: OSL Version 1.0 dated 8/2/2002

2002-08-02 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Fri, 2 Aug 2002, Lawrence E. Rosen wrote:
 Section 117 of the Copyright Act allows the copying of a computer
 program as an essential step in the utilization of the computer
 program.  That doesn't mean that one cannot contract that right away.
 I would not suggest that any open source license do so.  But an open
 source license can -- unless I'm misreading the OSD -- provide that
 anyone who makes such copies and distributes them provide access to the
 source code.  And such a contract is NOT against the Copyright Act.  

Yes...  but nobody has to accept the contract, either.

There's a clause in the GPL which may sound like that, but it's poorly worded.
The GPL says that by distributing the program, you've accepted the license.
What that *really* means is something like by distributing the program,
you've either accepted the license, or broken copyright law.

It isn't a generalized by doing X, you've accepted the license where X
can be anything at all.  X can only be a limited range of things--it has to
be something that's against the law if done with no license.  Copying the
program into memory and 'distributing' the program over the web aren't
among such things.

 As I suggested earlier, I honestly don't much care whether someone makes
 a copy of an open source program.  What many open source software owners
 care about is when they create derivative works, use those derivative
 works to make money by selling the *use* of the program (perhaps by
 providing an Internet service), and then not return the source code so
 that everyone else can benefit from those modifications.
 
 Legally, I can prevent that result through contract, and section 117 of
 the Copyright Act doesn't prevent me from doing so.

If you try that, people will just refuse to accept the contract and do it
anyway.  Since those activities are (unlike similar GPL-violating activities)
legal without a contract, that will work for them.

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Re: discuss: WGPL (WebGPL)

2002-07-28 Thread Ken Arromdee

Does this license make it illegal to use an ad-filtering proxy on the page
without accepting the license?  After all, using an ad-filtering proxy
copies and modifies the page, and it's not clear that this is 'running the
Web'.

What about putting the page on a site like Geocities which automatically
modifies the code?  Geocities ad-popup code is not GPL, after all.

What exactly is a web page?  More specifically, are framed content, inlined
images, etc. considered part of the web page?


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RE: OSD modification regarding what license can require of user

2002-03-18 Thread Ken Arromdee

On 18 Mar 2002, Ean Schuessler wrote:
 What if you simply added a requirement that:
 
 http://[service host name]:80/gnu-sources
 
 Must always either supply the sources or a redirect to the sources? 
 This rule could even apply for internal distribution (ie. services only
 available to AOL users). That would seem to take care of the problem
 without placing potentially unfulfillable constraints on the user
 interface.

It assumes http.

Imagine if someone had put a requirement in ten years ago which mandated that
the sources be available by a Gopher link.

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RE: Static v. Dynamic Linking -- redux

2002-03-15 Thread Ken Arromdee

(Huge To: line deleted.  Feel free to repost if you want.)

On Fri, 15 Mar 2002, Lawrence E. Rosen wrote:
 That said, and after some reflection, I would now argue that the trivial
 conversion of a static link into a dynamic link or API interface, simply
 to get around the provisions of the GPL, won't work.  The court would
 hear from a parade of experts who would explain that the intent was
 clearly to circumvent the license.

Why should that matter?

Here, intent to circumvent the license just means intent to follow the
letter of the license while not following it's spirit.

Why would such an activity be prohibited?

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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-08 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Thu, 8 Nov 2001, Karsten M. Self wrote:
 Clause 1:
 
The license shall not require a royalty or other fee for such sale
 
 The terms for payment are interpreted by me to be sale +time, which in
 the general case reduces to a required fee for sale or transfer.

Even in the general case, where the time period can be 0, it's not a required
fee for sale or transfer.  You can sell or transfer it to anyone you want
without a fee--the person you transfer it to just can't use it.

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Re: Intel's proposed BSD + Patent License

2001-10-30 Thread Ken Arromdee

 Intel hereby grants Recipient and Licensees a non-exclusive,
 worldwide, royalty-free patent license under Licensed Patents to make,
 use, sell, offer to sell, import and otherwise transfer the Software,
 if any, in source code and object code form. This license shall
 include changes to the Software that are error corrections or other
 minor changes to the Software that do not add functionality or
 features when the Software is incorporated in any version of a
 operating system that has been distributed under the GNU General
 Public License 2.0 or later.

This is odd.  What is the software when linked into an operating system?
Does the software include anything linked with it, and therefore, would a
change to the operating system that adds features be considered a change to
the software?

If yes, then the software becomes pretty much useless--you can link it into
an operating system only if you don't change the operating system.

If no, than anyone can change the software any way they want anyway, merely
by claiming the changes are changes to the operating system.

Also, wouldn't it violate the fields of endeavor clause and specific to a
product clause to only allow the software to be linked with operating systems?
(I can see a way around this: claim that of course the user is allowed to
link it with anything, it's just that it would violate patents, but it's
not the license which says you're prohibited from violating patents, just an
external law.  The problems with this workaround are left as an exercise to
the reader.)

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RE: Is inherited class a derivative work?

2001-10-21 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Sun, 21 Oct 2001, Michael Beck wrote:
 When you derive a class, you are creating a copy of the original class. When you
 make changes to the new class, you are creating a derivative work, the same
 way as you would do it by making changes to a copy of book, copy of a picture,
 copy of a house design, or a copy of a chip design. You don't change the
 original, but you still are creating a derivative work.

When you derive a class, you're creating a copy of the original class *on your
machine*.  That doesn't mean that if you write code that derives a class, and
distribute the code, you're distributing copies of the original, modified
or not.  It means that you're distributing instructions which tell other
people how to modify copies they already have.

You can't copy a house design, change it, and distribute it.  But you *can*
distribute a set of instructions which says take this house design, reduce
the size of room 3A by 5 feet in the east-west direction, and change the pipes
to...  Someone can get their own copy of the house design and apply those
instructions.

Telling someone how to make a derivative work isn't the same as distributing
one.

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RE: Is inherited class a derivative work?

2001-10-16 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Tue, 16 Oct 2001, Lawrence E. Rosen wrote:
 While the FSF *may* be correct, I would expect a more thorough analysis
 of the situation from them before I accept their conclusion.  In
 particular, how does inheritance differ in a substantive and legally
 significant way from traditional subroutine linkage which, as many of us
 believe, does *not* create a derivative work at least the context of
 dynamic linking?

Well, the FSF believes that that does too, so I presume they don't see a
difference...

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Re: licenses for RPGs

2001-03-21 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Wed, 21 Mar 2001, Ryan S. Dancey wrote:
 The OGL framework, when applied to the System Reference Document, provides a
 way to make DD compatible content that is far, far more extensive than the
 basic rights you might have as they relate to the public domain status of
 the game rules of DD.  And there's no grey area.  Both conditions which
 make it possible to bring to market a commercial product without having to
 provide for a substantial threat of litigation.

That's where the extortion comes in.  "If you submit to our conditions,
you can do something which is legal anyway, but which we'll otherwise
sue you into bankruptcy for".

 And it's furthermore quite silly to point at the former TSR (now Wizards of
 the Coast) business and say that the climate of litigation is fostered by
 one company.  Every commerical hobby game publisher has taken the exact same
 position for 25 years - that the mere game rule content in an RPG is the
 least part of the copyrighted work of an RPG, and that derivative works
 based on such a product are infringing.

Ryan, the problem is that TSR has bizarre ideas of what constitutes a
derivative work, as well as bizarre ideas that the company owns all
derivative works, which together amounts to a threat, not only to sue, but to
take other people's works without compensation.




Re: licenses for RPGs

2001-03-20 Thread Ken Arromdee

The Open Gaming License isn't quite what it seems.

The difference between that license and the GPL is that without the GPL, you
can't distribute copies at all, and the GPL gives you the right to distribute
copies under some conditions--that is, it adds rights.

The Open Gaming license is closer to extortion.  The key is that game rules
are not copyrightable, and normally you'd have complete rights to create
D20-compatible material.  However, TSR threatens to sue people who do that.
Since nobody can afford the cost of a lawsuit from TSR, TSR can prevent
perfectly legal activity this way.

What the Open Gaming License says "if you adhere to these conditions, we
promise not to sue you for something that you really have the right to do
anyway".  Without the license you have *more* rights--just less freedom from
being bankrupted by frivolous lawsuits.




Re: What is Copyleft?

2001-02-23 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Fri, 23 Feb 2001, Rod Dixon, J.D., LL.M. wrote:
 Interesting point. In the ordinary course of programming, I suspect there
 would be no derivative work created, hence the GPL should provide no
 obstacle for distributing the program as open source. As you mentioned,
 there could be a counter-example such as the development of a text editor
 for Windows that not only makes calls to print drivers that MS has thrown in
 its OS, but also to DLLs written by printer manufacturers. Add to that fact
 that the windows text editor reads into those drivers additional True Type
 fonts (independently copyrightable) and you my have a genuine derivative
 work question.

Something similar first turned up long ago when GNU software first was
ported to PCs.  Even regular compilers link programs to libraries that come
with the compiler, and there was concern that the GPL did not allow this since
those libraries didn't come with the OS, but with the compiler.

The "solution" was for RMS to state that standard compiler libraries count
as operating system components even if they don't really come with the
operating system.  I still find this unconvincing; but I would expect that a
similar rationalization would work with printer drivers.

(One of the biggest reasons this is unconvincing is that it doesn't bind
anyone else.  RMS can only redefine OS components on GPL software that is
his, not on GPL software from other people.)




Re: Open Source *Game* Programming License

2001-01-18 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Thu, 18 Jan 2001, Bryan George wrote:
  Oh, you could make a new world file, but by that reasoning,
  couldn't I make a program that needs readline, distribute it without readline,
  and tell the user to make a new readline function?  World files are at least
  as important to a game like Quake as readline is to a program that uses it.
 Yes - likewise, a Website is useless without its content, a CD is
 useless without songs, a cell phone is useless without a service
 contract.  Shall I go on?

Service contracts aren't code, or even copyrighted material.

As for the other two examples...  Web servers and CD players are *typically*
used by separately getting the server/player, and the content.  Saying "we
won't supply any web pages, get them yourself" is a reasonable thing to do
because the web server isn't tied to any particular page; users can and do
use many different web pages with it.

I can go get a different CD for a GPL'ed CD player.  I can't get a different
set of Quake data for use with my GPL'ed Quake engine (conversions typically
require owning the original game).

Compare this to the readline situation: as long as the readline library is the
only library available for use with the program, the GPL on one requires that
the GPL be on the other one too.

(Disclaimer: I personally reject the readline reasoning, but my rationale for
that rejection does not apply to Quake.)




Re: Open Source *Game* Programming?

2001-01-17 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Wed, 17 Jan 2001, Ben Tilly wrote:
 IANAL but I think the general reaction would be that the
 graphics are part of the overall work and said game company
 would then be obliged to also give away the graphics,
 which you would then have access to.

Doom and Quake have been released as GPL.  Graphics and data files have not.
By this reasoning, anyone except the creators of Doom or Quake could not
distribute those programs at all, since the graphics are necessary to use
the program and they are not open source.




Re: LGPL clarification

2000-11-01 Thread Ken Arromdee

On 1 Nov 2000, Ian Lance Taylor wrote:
 The LGPL puts restrictions on P when it is linked with L.  But so
 what?  That linking will only happen on the end user system.  The
 typical effect is that the end user is not permitted to distribute the
 executable now found in memory, because it is impossible to satisfy
 both the conditions of the vendor of P and the conditions of the LGPL.
 
 But the LGPL puts no restrictions on the distribution of P, which is
 what the proprietary user cares about.

That is not, however, what RMS believes.  If there is only one shared library
that exists, he considers P to be derivative of it even before it is linked;
and this triggers all licensing conditions on L even if P is not distributed
with L.  Remember readline?




Re: Plan 9 license

2000-09-03 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Sun, 3 Sep 2000, Mark Wells wrote:
 Here's a simple test to determine if something has been stolen: does the
 original owner still have it?

Doesn't work.  "Because my work is copied and the coies are widely spread, I
do not have the potential market that I did before.  That market has been
stolen from me."




Re: Using GPL'd software in BSD-licensed app

2000-05-10 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Wed, 10 May 2000, David Johnson wrote:
 If the GPLd code is compiled along with the rest of your stuff, then
 the rest of your stuff needs to be GPL as well. If it can be compiled
 into a separate library, then it could be used *provided* that there is
 a functionally equivalent alternative available elsewhere in existance.

It should be noted that this claim is highly controversial.  I, for one, don't
buy it.  It would mean that, for instance, if you make a program that only
runs under Microsoft Windows and dynamically links Windows libraries, it is a
derivative of Windows and Microsoft can legally prevent you from selling it.

(I wrote to RMS.  He confirmed this, though he did suggest that Microsoft
probably doesn't do it because they want people to buy Windows.)




Re: Wired Article on the GPL

2000-03-30 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Thu, 30 Mar 2000, Chip Salzenberg wrote:
  A license that isn't a contract (a bare permission) can be freely
  revoked by the licensor, as in an invitation to enter onto land: if
  the landowner changes his mind, the licensee instantly becomes a
  trespasser.
 I never thought I'd say this, but:  'Only UCITA can save us now.'

IANAL, but there's always the possibility of a court ruling that recipients of
GPL software are providing consideration, so it's a contract.  If you
distribute a binary, the consideration might be that you distribute the
source.  Putting one's own code under GPL if linked with GPL might also be
consideration--I don't think consideration has to directly benefit the
original copyright owner to count as consideration.

The FSF really should get involved in this, because the implications of this
question are obviously pretty big.




Re: How To Break The GPL

2000-03-04 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Sat, 4 Mar 2000, David Johnson wrote:
 But what does "direct functionality" mean in terms of licensing? I can see
 functionality being added to a GPL application in ways that both would and
 would not violate the GPL. If I wrote a new plugin for Gimp, it would add
 functionality, but would only have runtime linkage. But putting the exact some
 code within the body of the Gimp source code cause it to come under the purview
 of the GPL.

According to RMS, plugins are *also* derivative works, so both your examples
would come under the GPL.  (Which produces the odd result that it is legal
to write a GPL plugin for Internet Explorer but not for Netscape 4, since
Internet Explorer comes under the system component exception.)



Re: How To Break The GPL

2000-03-03 Thread Ken Arromdee

This basically sounds like "user does the link".

The FSF takes the position that if you distribute software that can only be
run by linking it with something GPLed, your software is a derivative work of
the GPLed software even if you don't include any parts of it.  So by these
standards, Alice would be distributing a derivative work, so she would be the
one violating the GPL.

Of course this position has some other unpleasant consequences too; for
instance, a program designed only to run with Microsoft Windows DLLs is
a derivative work of Windows, which means that Microsoft can deny you the
legal right to write Windows programs.  I wrote to RMS asking him about just
this scenario, and his reply was basically that this is correct, but that it
is not in the interests of the makers of proprietary operating systems to do
that.  (I didn't buy that--it wouldn't be in Microsoft's interest to ban *all*
Windows software, but it would be in their interest to ban, say, Word Perfect
or Netscape.)



Re: How To Break The GPL

2000-03-03 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Fri, 3 Mar 2000, John Cowan wrote:
  The FSF takes the position that if you distribute software that can only be
  run by linking it with something GPLed, your software is a derivative work of
  the GPLed software even if you don't include any parts of it.
 What if there were a non-GPL and a GPL implementation written to the same
 interface definition?

The FSF's position, as far as I know, is that if there exist two
implementations, and one of them is not GPL, then the work can't be said to
be derivative of the GPL version.  It is only derivative if the GPL one is the
only possible one to link with.

GNU readline is probably the most infamous case of the FSF taking this
position.



Re: Apple Public Source License - is it OSI certified?

1999-11-15 Thread Ken Arromdee

Personally I object to the APSL because of Apple's right to withdraw it
if there is a claim of infringement.  The problem is that this means that
the janitor's mother-in-law could say "I think the whole thing infringes"
and the entire source code would be withdrawn; the license doesn't require
that the claim be one which is made in court.  (And the clause requiring
Apple to un-withdraw the rights if they win in court doesn't apply if it never
_goes_ to court.)

But I'm a layman with no legal training whatsoever.



Re: Can Java code EVER be GPLd, at all?

1999-11-13 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Sat, 13 Nov 1999, Justin Wells wrote:
 But new technologies like perl, Java, CORBA, etc., are changing this
 and I would like to think about what kind of license could be used 
 that would be fair and would still impose a "copyleft" of some sort on 
 these new technologies in order to promote the development of future
 free software (let's leave the philosophical debate about whether I 
 would succeed, whether this is right, etc., for another day--let's 
 just talk about the technical and OSD compliance issues today.)

I had an idea a while back.  I make no claim that doing this is a good idea
even if it works (it was originally a reductio ad absurdum, not a serious
idea), and anyway I'm not a lawyer.

The GPL only applies when you distribute copies of a GPL program or derived
works of it.  It operates by the fact that under copyright law, the default is
not to allow people to copy at all, so that if someone doesn't agree to the
GPL, they can't distribute.  Modifying the GPL to restrict use instead of
distribution would not work, because the default is that you _can_ use a
program that you have a legitimate copy of, so someone who doesn't agree to
such a modified GPL would still be able to use it.

My idea was that if you want to restrict use, you put in a clause saying that
people may only distribute to other people who agree to the usage restriction.

You have no right to distribute to someone who doesn't agree.  That is, if
you're distributing to someone who doesn't agree, you're distributing illegal
copies.  Since there is no right to use illegal copies, anyone who doesn't
agree has no right to use the program.  So either the recipient agrees (and
has the right to use the program only in accordance with the restrictions)
or disagrees, and received a pirated copy, and has no right to use it at all.

Notable flaws of this scheme include the fact that since the distributor has
to get his recipients to agree to a contract, it would be impossible to
distribute the software in situations like stores or ftp sites.  This might be
fixable if the author agrees in advance not to sue such distributors, but
I'm not sure; again, I'm not a lawyer.



Re: SOS license

1999-11-10 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Wed, 10 Nov 1999, Brian Behlendorf wrote:
 No.  You can charge for the patch, you can charge for the act of giving
 the patch to someone, but you can't charge for the patched version.

Hmm.  What are the implications for this compared to the FSF's stand on "user
does the link"?



Re: Does a GPL API infect its apps?

1999-10-21 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Thu, 21 Oct 1999, Ross N. Williams wrote:
 I just want to point out that the use of the virus metaphor to describe
 the legalities of association in relation to the GPL is inappropriate
 because the "infection" does not proceed beyond one level.
GNU GPL V2: 2.
These requirements apply to the modified work as a whole.  If
identifiable sections of that work are not derived from the Program,
and can be reasonably considered independent and separate works in
themselves, then this License, and its terms, do not apply to those
sections when you distribute them as separate works.  But when you
distribute the same sections as part of a whole which is a work based
on the Program, the distribution of the whole must be on the terms of
this License, whose permissions for other licensees extend to the
entire whole, and thus to each and every part regardless of who wrote it.

That seems to keep it from proceeding beyond one level, but really, it doesn't.
In fact, it does nothing at all.

Suppose I add a function to a GPL program.  Someone else wants to use the
function--only the part I added, nothing from the original GPL program--with
their own code.

The GPL says that my added function must be GPL when it is distributed as part
of a GPL program.  Once it becomes GPL, it stays GPL--the GPL doesn't contain
any clause saying that the function once again becomes non-GPL after it is
removed from the program.

This causes the virus effect, since the other person who is using my function
must place their code under GPL.  They would have to go directly to me in order
to get a non-GPL copy of the function, even though that copy is byte-for-byte
the same as the copy they snarfed from the program.

Here's a hypothetical version which does not have this problem:

But when you
distribute the same sections as part of a whole which is a work based
on the Program, the distribution of the whole must be on the terms of
this License or a license which grants permissions which are identical to this
License except for the possible addition of extra permissions on the sections
which are identifiable works as described above.



Re: Does a GPL API infect its apps?

1999-10-21 Thread Ken Arromdee

Now that I think about it, there's an even weirder result.

Suppose I add a function to a GPL program, and I want to dual license the
function so that it can be used with the GPL program but can also be used in
way X (where X is not permitted by GPL.  For instance, "may be used as a
Netscape plugin".)

I add the function to the GPL program, and then I add a copyright statement
saying that the function in question is dual-licensed under GPL+X.

Now we get into semantics.  If dual-licensed means "is under a single license
GPL+X whose terms mean that you can use it in either of two ways", then I
cannot do this, because functions added to the GPL'ed program must be GPL'ed.
The single license GPL+X is not GPL, so it is not allowed.

If dual-licensed means "under a single license which may be one of (GPL, X),
selected by the recipient", then every time the recipient selects X, he's
received a GPL program with an added function licensed under X--this makes me
a GPL violator depending on the whim of the recipient.

The upshot of this?  If I want to send someone a GPLed program with a function
of mine, and I want the function to have additional permissions, I have to
*send them two copies of the function*.  This is bizarre.  (I can't even
relicense the copy they already have--that would retroactively create one of
the two above cases and thus retroactively make me a GPL violator.)



Re: Does a GPL API infect its apps?

1999-10-21 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Thu, 21 Oct 1999, John Cowan wrote:
  Here's a hypothetical version which does not have this problem:
  But when you
  distribute the same sections as part of a whole which is a work based
  on the Program, the distribution of the whole must be on the terms of
  this License or a license which grants permissions which are identical to this
  License except for the possible addition of extra permissions on the sections
  which are identifiable works as described above.
 This is already possible, since a distribution of the PART is not a
 distribution of the WHOLE.

I don't think so.  Call the GPL program A and the added part B.

The GPL on A only says what you can do with A+B.  It does not say what you can
do with B alone.  That *looks* like it's only restricting distribution of
the whole and not the part.

But one of the requirements of the GPL on A is that you also GPL A+B.  The
GPL on A+B restricts what you can do with derivatives of A+B (unlike the first
GPL on A, which only restricts what you can do with derivatives of A).  B 
(when obtained by cutting it from A+B) is a derivative of A+B, and therefore
B is restricted by GPL even though it contains no A code.

That is, the fact that you cannot take the section B out of the program and
use it under another license is a second-order effect.  The initial GPL on A
does not prohibit this action, but it requires that you GPL A+B, and GPLing A+B
in turn causes the prohibition.

If B is dual-licensed, that dual license got lost at the step where you
distributed A+B.  You must distribute A+B under GPL-only, which makes that
particular copy of B GPL-only too.  Any dual-licensed copies of B must be
obtained separately.



Re: Does a GPL API infect its apps?

1999-10-21 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Thu, 21 Oct 1999, John Cowan wrote:
  If B is dual-licensed, that dual license got lost at the step where you
  distributed A+B.  You must distribute A+B under GPL-only, which makes that
  particular copy of B GPL-only too.  Any dual-licensed copies of B must be
  obtained separately.
 I think so.  But this is easily cured by distributing both A+B and B.

Yes, it is.  But doesn't it seem a bit strange?



Re: Does a GPL API infect its apps?

1999-10-21 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Fri, 22 Oct 1999, Ross N. Williams wrote:
 Thus, my understanding is that if A+B is GPLed, then you could still
 extract B and use it in a way that violates the GPL, so long as you
 can provide a complete genealogy for B under another licence or get
 all of the contributors to B to re-issue under another licence.

If it is possible to provide a complete genealogy for B under another license,
then you haven't extracted B.  You've obtained a separate copy of B.  The
copy of B that is in A+B cannot have a genealogy under another license unless
the _entire_ combination A+B has a genealogy under another license.

 Furthermore, my understanding is that if a program were released
 under GPL and modified by 1000 authors, then even ten years later,
 the entire mess could be taken commercial so long as all of the
 1000 authors agreed to licence their contributions to the commercial
 venture.

If the authors are contacted and they all agree to use a new license, they
certainly can, of course.  But this does require contacting the author--the
author can't just say "you can license this under GPL or some other license"
and expect people to be able to cut it out of the GPL program and use it under
the other license.  He has to include an extra copy or he has to be contacted
at the moment of cutting.



Re: Free World Licence and clauses 5,6,8 9 of OSS definition.

1999-10-18 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Tue, 19 Oct 1999, Ross N. Williams wrote:
 The FWL does not discriminate in relation to a PARTICULAR
 software distribution. Instead, it discriminates in relation
 to a CLASS of distributions - the free ones.
...
 clause 8 was designed to prevent OS vendors calling "OSS"
 software that could only be legally run on their platform.

If it means what you say it means, what's to prevent someone from defining a
class consisting of "Windows 95 and all successor operating systems"?  That's
certainly a class as opposed to a particular operating system.

"With respect to a particular software distribution" means that if you need to
know what the distribution is to know whether you're allowed to use the
software, it's failed the test.



Re: Free World Licence and clauses 5,6,8 9 of OSS definition.

1999-10-18 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Tue, 19 Oct 1999, Ross N. Williams wrote:
  The FWL does not discriminate in relation to a PARTICULAR
  software distribution. Instead, it discriminates in relation
  to a CLASS of distributions - the free ones.
 If it means what you say it means, what's to prevent someone from defining a
 class consisting of "Windows 95 and all successor operating systems"?
 But your example is a class defined by an identity, not a property.

I'm not sure what you mean by an identity.  If you mean that it defines its
class only by listing all its members, then no, it doesn't.  It doesn't even
mention Windows 98, yet Windows 98 would be included in it.

And honestly, if _you_ saw the phrase "particular", would you really think it
meant "being a member of a class defined by an identity, but not a class
defined by a property"?  That's just too long and convoluted a definition to
have plausibly been intended all along.



Re: Simple Public License, draft

1999-09-02 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Thu, 2 Sep 1999, Justin Wells wrote:
 This "or any later version" has always bugged me. What if the FSF loses 
 a lawsuit against Evil Corp., and in order to pay a judgement, all of 
 the FSF's intellectual property rights are awarded to Evil Corp.; which
 then releases a version of the GPL which allows Evil Corp. to make 
 proprietary use of any GPL'd software.
... 
 That's why I don't do it. If someone can convince me that this would 
 never happen, I don't mind adding the "or any later version", but in 
 the past, for this reason, I have always specified an exact version
 of the GPL for my software.

What happens if later on there's a GPL version 3, and someone wants to mix
code from a GPL program which uses version 3, and yours?



Re: Put it in laymen's terms

1999-08-01 Thread Ken Arromdee

On 1 Aug 1999 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 However, you can also take Linus' note as an interpretation of the scope of the
 GPL and not an exception at all.

If you accept that another person can reinterpret phrases like "dervived work",
and you also accept that this reinterpretation can apply to code written by
other people, then the GPL is for all practical purposes nonexistent.  If
someone wants to violate it, they just have to redefine "redistribution",
"derived work", etc. so that their violation is not really a violation.

It doesn't make sense that one person can reinterpret what a phrase in
someone else's license means.



Re: A new open source license

1999-05-11 Thread Ken Arromdee

Perhaps this is a bit of an odd objection, since I'm objecting to something
taken verbatim from the GPL, but I've argued about this clause in the GPL
before.

On 11 May 1999, Russell Nelson wrote:
 You are not required to accept this license, since you have not signed it.
 However, nothing else grants you permission to modify or distribute any
 code, library, or any derivative works thereof. These actions are
 prohibited by law if you do not accept this license.

The logical consequence of this is not "somebody who distributes has accepted
the license".  It is "somebody who distributes either has accepted the
license, or is illegally pirating the Code".

This is not trivial, since a distributor might decide that they are better off
being a pirate than having accepted the license; for instance, consider what
happened to MOSIX, where if the author accepted the GPL he might be violating
Israeli export restrictions.  I would imagine that violating those would lead
to punishment rather more severe than the punishment for pirating software.

 Therefore, by using,
 modifying or distributing any code, library (or any work based on the
 code), you indicate your acceptance of the License set forth below, and all
 its terms and conditions for copying, distributing or modifying such Code,
 library, or works based on them.

The clause following the "Therefore" doesn't logically follow from the clauses
that it is supposed to logically follow from.  Someone who copies the code
doesn't _automatically_ accept the conditions.  If they distribute but don't
accept the conditions, then they're a software pirate and you can sue them...
but you can't act as if the license has been accepted and can't, for instance,
copy the modifications.