Re: VIRGIL: Re: Greek origins of the Irish?

2001-06-21 Thread Bob Cowan
Dear Sylvia
I was unaware of (and tantalised by) this idea of Greek origins for the 
Irish, but it is an interesting parallel to their alleged Scythian
(from Nennius onwards) and later Carthaginian origins
(notably Charles Vallancey in the 18th century 'proving' the link by
the 'similarities' of Punic in Plautus' Poenulus with Irish), both
of which were used at different times in very different ways by the
Irish themselves, and others, to contrast with the first Trojan, and
then Roman British. Interesting on this and its resonance in 20th
century Irish literature is Elizabeth Cullingford in PMLA 111 (1996)
222-39.

A little off the point, I'm afraid, but hopefully of interest.
Regards
Bob

From: "Sylvia Federico" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Reply-To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: VIRGIL: Re: Greek origins of the Irish?
Date: Thu, 21 Jun 2001 12:30:49 GMT0BST
Dear Virgilians,
I hope this inquiry isn't too tangential for this list...  I am
looking at how the Troy story was invoked in later medieval Irish
adaptations of Virgil and Dares, and recently came across an
assertion that puzzles me.  Stanford, in his _Ireland and the
Classical Tradition_, maintains that the Irish "were encouraged to
see themselves as descended from the Greeks" (as opposed to the Roman
or Trojan origins claimed by the English and the French), but does
not supply specific bibliography to support this.  Does anyone happen
to know anything about the supposed Greek origins of the Irish, or
know where I might look to find out more about this?  Many thanks in
advance!  --Sylvia
Sylvia Federico
School of English
University of Leeds
Leeds LS2 9JT
0113-233-4769
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Re: VIRGIL: Turnus ~ Mark Antony?

2001-06-25 Thread Bob Cowan
Another possible angle could be the destruction of alternative routes
which Rome could take. Just as the different aspects of Dido are
refracted and split into Amata and Lavinia, so that the former can be
safely isolated and destroyed, while the latter remains as a tabula
rasa for the imprint of imperial destiny, so the duality of Aeneas in
Carthage - pius Octavian or decadent Antony - can be split into an
Augustan Aeneas whose Antonine qualities are displaced onto Turnus and
safely eliminated.
Or maybe I'm getting carried away...
Bob

From: David Wilson-Okamura <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Reply-To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: VIRGIL: Turnus ~ Mark Antony?
Date: Fri, 22 Jun 2001 22:28:50 -0500
While getting up a lecture on Shakespeare's _Antony and Cleopatra_ a month
or so ago, I happened to notice that there are several references to a duel
between Antony and Octavian. The duel never comes off, of course, but
according to Plutarch (Shakespeare's primary source for the play), Mark
Anthony _did_ challenge Octavian to single combat before the battle of
Actium. My question is this: could this challenge have some bearing on the
single combat at the end of the Aeneid? Is Turnus, in some sense, Mark
Anthony?
Servius mentions Mark Anthony several times in his commentary; at no point,
however, does he suggest (and now I'm getting to my real point) that Mark
Anthony = Turnus. Which, I suppose, shows that Servius wasn't totally
crackers. But what do you think? If you buy into the idea that there is
_some_ historical allegory in the Aeneid, might not the duel with Turnus
represent a climactic moment in the career of Augustus? If so, which one?
Anthony's defeat at Actium? Or has Virgil taken it upon himself to
represent Actium in such a way as to give Octavian credit for the duel that
never fought, as if to say, "he could have done it, even though he didn't"?
One other point in favor of the loose Anthony = Turnus equation I'm
proposing here: they are both very sexy, very romantic, and very doomed.
I am not suggesting that the duel can't be other things as well (including
itself). I don't think we should be put off, though, by the idea that
Virgil might be using a single combat to represent a battle that was
actually fought by large armies or navies. Think, for instance, of the
battle between Prince Arthur and the Souldan in Faerie Queene book 5: in
the fiction of the poem, it's just two guys fighting; but it's also a
transparent allegory for the defeat of the Spanish Armada. Did Spenser get
the idea from the end of the Aeneid? That's harder to say, though Michael
O'Connell (in Mirror and Veil: The Historical Dimension of Spenser's Faerie
Queene) has argued persuasively, I think, that Spenser's historical
allegory is modeled on the practice of Virgil as expounded by Servius...
But I've gone on far too long. What think ye?
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David Wilson-Okamurahttp://virgil.org  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Macalester College  Virgil Tradition: discussion, bibliography, &c.
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Re: VIRGIL: Dido -----> Desdemona?

2002-10-29 Thread Bob Cowan
I suspect you _are_ out on a limb, though it's a very attractive one, and 
Marlowe's Dido - if not Virgil's - must have been fresh in the memory. I 
guess it depends whether one traces any similarities to the source - an 
Italian novella, if I remember right - or Shakespeare's treatment of it.

If the said limb can bear a little more weight, might one note that Dido is 
repeatedly 'infelix', while Othello's wife is also - etymologically - 
unfortunate, 'dysdaimon'?

Just a thought
Bob

From: "Ambros Hieronymus Prechtl" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
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To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Subject: VIRGIL: Dido -> Desdemona?
Date: Tue, 29 Oct 2002 13:42:51 -0400
The intriguing similarity of Dido falling in love with Aeneas as he tells
his story and Desdemona falling in love with Othello as he tells his
story -- I am sure people have noticed it but has anyone written about it?
We have two strangers, heroes both of them, who have travelled far,
encountered many adventures and faced many horrid dangers.  There is
something in the setting of each woman that argues against their falling in
love and yet they do fall in love..  And both ended up dead after only a
short period of happiness, both killed by their husbands: Desdemona 
directly
and Dido indirectly, her man

Aeneas [who] praebuit et causam mortis et ensem :
Though Shakespeare may have had little Latin, he knew more than most people
alive then of Greek mythology and ancient history and literature.  It would
be quite unreasonable to assume that he did not know the story of Dido.
 Any opinion on this anyone?  Am I out on a limb?
Ambros

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