Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: the expression political economy(fwd)

2000-04-10 Thread md7148


true. that is what I "meant"...

Mine

Ted wrote:

I didn't intend to suggest that Mine had used the phrase "bourgeois
thinker".  What I was getting at was the idea that seemed implicit in her
question that Marshall and Keynes could not have radical ideas because
they
were not in some sense or other "radicals".





Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: the expression political economy (fwd)

2000-04-09 Thread phillp2

Mine wrote:
 
However,as you
 know, there are some Marxists in the Marxist tradition who uncritically
 subcribe to the notions of "orthodox" economics and free market
 capitalism. This, I would charecterize as economic determinism, has
 interesting commonalities with liberal economics since it treats 
 capitalism somewhat theologically and mechanistically. The typical "theory
 of stages" argument says that we should let the market forces operate
 untill capitalism unleashes itself. Any intervention in markets is seen as 
 postponing the collapse of capitalism. so as the argument goes, this
 tradition still emphasizes the primacy of economic laws rather than
 revolutionary unity of theory and practice, which is so central to Marx's
 thinking. is such a distortion of Marx unique to economics dicipline in
 general? I have not seen, for example, such a religious reliance on
 markets in other diciplinary discussions on political economy of 
 capitalism
 
The problem is that 'markets' are just one institution in the political 
economic organization of society.  Markets existed in pre-capitalist 
societies, organized exchange occurred amoung aboriginal tribes 
in North America long before contact with Europeans and the 
expansion of merchant capitalism, markets existed in the USSR 
and eastern Europe under central planning, markets were a 
characteristic of medieval Europe, etc. etc.  Polanyi makes this the 
central thesis of _The Great Transformation_.  Prior to industrial 
capitalism, he argues, markets were imbedded in society, meaning 
in part that markets were controlled by society to reflect social 
institutions and values and maintain the social status quo. (hence, 
for instance, the laws on usury, on engrossing, on fair price, etc.)  
In other societies, ultimate control on the distributive inbalances of 
markets were repealed by Jubilees, potlaches, etc.

The great transformation -- the triumph of capitalism -- comes with 
the subjugation of society to "free markets", that is that instead of 
markets being embedded in society and used as an institution to 
facilitate production that reflects prevailing social values, society 
becomes an institution that reflects the values determined by 
markets.  In the ultimate, the market replaces society as in 
Maggie's infamous dictate, "there is no such thing as society, only 
individuals."

The Canadian political economy basically takes of from this point.  
The 'father' of the tradition, Harold Innis, was highly influenced by 
Veblen.  In one of his most interesting articles, he makes the 
statement (this is by memory so is not exact) that, in new 
countries like Canada (he is writing in the 20s), we must discard 
the economic theory of the old countries and develop new 
economic theory appropriate to conditions in Canada.  The theory 
of the old countries (i.e. Britain) are exploitative of the new.

His 'new' theory has become known as the 'staple theory' such that 
he argues that society is shaped by the institutions and economic 
aspects of development of the leading, natural resource, export-
based economic sector.  Markets are one aspect of this, but more 
important, particularly for some of the other major staple 'theorists', 
like Fowke (Rod take note), Creighton, Buckley, and including 
Naylor, was the balance of class power which determined the 
distribution of income and wealth and of the 'spread' and 'backwash' 
effects of economic expansion.

I think the most important aspect of understanding this approach to 
political economy is understanding the nature and location of power 
in society and how this was manifest in the material (economic) 
development of Canada.  In the early part of Canadian history, the 
staple industries that shaped the political and social institutions 
were TRADES (Cod, fur, timber, wheat) which were heavy users of 
_commercial capital_ and hence, power was dominated by 
commercial capital who used this dominance to control political 
institutions and the distribution of political power.  It also 
determined ultimately the political, religious elite.  (See for 
example, Creighton's _The Commercial Empire of the St. 
Lawrence, or Tom Naylor's _History of Canadian Business_.  When 
economic development turned to railroads and the grainhandling 
system and settlement, power gravitated to the hands of financial 
capital (not industrial capital as many Marxists assume) which 
lead to the control of the elite by the bankers, insurance and 
mortgage companies, etc.

Now, the Canadian political economy tradition gradually split into 
two camps, the liberal camp that followed from the economist 
Mackintosh and, as Mine suggests, reflected a very mechanistic, 
non-class based, non-power based analysis -- markets for staples 
as conditioned by policies and institutions reflecting existing 
political alliances and interests (and those inherited from Britain 
and shaped by American influences) determined the course of, and 
distribution 

Re: Re: Re: the expression political economy (fwd)

2000-04-08 Thread md7148


Usually today people use the term when they are writing are the margins
of
neo-classical economics (that includes Buchanan).

Barnet Wagman wrote:

 The term 'international political economy' is/was used by international
 political scientists like Susan Strange - their use of the the term is
 almost entirely unrelated to its use by Smith or Marxians or Buchanan
 (in case things weren't confusing enought).

 Barnet Wagman

 email: [EMAIL PROTECTED]

Barnet, I agree, but I will make some general comments..

first, there is no general consensus among political or social scientists
(broadly defined) about what "international political economy" means to
begin with. Just as there are "international political scientists" such as
Susan Strange, there are "international economists" such as Paul Krugman,
so I don't see the point (though, I would say, Krugman is much worse than
Strange, may be because of my diciplinary bias). Conceptual problems exist
in every dicipline of social science, including economics, not only in
political science. At a first glance, I should say, we have more "critical
theorists" in political science, sociology, anthropology etc..than people
have in economics. Economics is relatively a more conservative social 
science when it comes to discussion of "certain" issues.

second, you are talking about how Susan Strange's use of "international
political economy" is unrelated to its use by Smith, Buchanan etc... This
is true and normal (by virtue of historical facts) because neither Smith
nor Buchanan attempted to formulate an "exact" definition of this concept.
I don't remember Smith writing in 17th century Britain, at a mercantalist
capitalist period, and still mentioning the global dimensions of
capitalism in some systemic way, that some of us do in IPE "today". What
he meant was still packed in classical economic terms. Differently, IPE is
relatively a new dicipline that has aimed to abridge the gap between
economics and politics. Of course, there are different standpoints within
IPE, which is what I am gonna talk about..


Third, what we mean when we mean by "political economy" in "any"
dicipline, I find the term "world system" analytically  more useful
than "international political economy" or "political economy" per se. The
reason for that is the latter still assumes that we are living in an
inter-state system, not in a world system. It further expects, given free
trade, all societies will automatically follow the western model of
capitalist development, ignoring global hierarchies within the system.
hence, it is implicitly biased in favor neo-classical economics or free
market orthodoxy. Even, imperialism is seen, in these accounts, preparing
the "conditions" for capitalism, and "westernizing" and "modernizing" the
rest of world. This is not the problem of "political scientists" or other
diciplines of social science, Barnet. the problem stems from the economics 
dicipline it self, a dicipline that is "still" less critical and conscious
of its hypothetical assumptions compared to other social sciences, whether
it is Buchanan or Smith type (actually, Lenin was one of the first who saw
the problems with orthodox, free market marxism, together with brilliant 
Gramsci around those times)


On the contrary, the concept "world system" (or even "international
political economy") was first invented and heavily used by political
scientists, political economists, sociologists, anthropologists and
historians, not economists per se! Inter-paradigmatic communication is
much stronger within those diciplines in terms of how their
diciplines relate to one another. For economists, on the contary, the
world is always economics "versus" other social sciences, and the rest is
a bunch of cultural sciences. Any serious attempt comes from other
diciplines to abridge the gap between economics and politics. for example,
Wallerstein is not an economist, but he provides one of the most systemic
analysis of modern capitalism, who can at least escape from the "margins"
of neo-classical economy by still being a political economist. I strongly
tend to believe his "sociology" background enriches his understanding of
political economy.

Mine Doyran
Phd Student
Political Science
[EMAIL PROTECTED]


--
Michael Perelman
Economics Department
California State University
Chico, CA 95929

Tel. 530-898-5321
E-Mail [EMAIL PROTECTED]




Re: Re: Re: Re: the expression political economy (fwd)

2000-04-08 Thread md7148



That is not the case in Canada. Here it is more usually associated with
the
left nationalist.


very true point, Rod! I have always beleived that there is something
interesting to look at in canadian leftism, eventhough canada
is one of the core capitalist powers. Once, the left was associated with
"almost" the same meanings in Turkey too. third world nationalist,
anti-imperialist, socialist, progressive, anti-fascist, radically welfare,
avant-garde, bla, bla, bla...we were very much influenced by european type
leftism (certain brands), and the organic ruling classes by french and
german type capitalism. thus, historically speaking,
neo-classsical economy and political liberalism of anglo saxon type are
alien to us. This is changing, however, within the last 30 years or so due
to the incresing US hegemony and market capitalism...though i strongly
reject that it should be a model for us however inevitable it seems in the
first place..


cheers,
Mine


Michael Perelman wrote:

 Usually today people use the term when they are writing are the margins of
 neo-classical economics (that includes Buchanan).

 Barnet Wagman wrote:

  The term 'international political economy' is/was used by international
  political scientists like Susan Strange - their use of the the term is
  almost entirely unrelated to its use by Smith or Marxians or Buchanan
  (in case things weren't confusing enought).
 
  Barnet Wagman
 
  email: [EMAIL PROTECTED]

 --
 Michael Perelman
 Economics Department
 California State University
 Chico, CA 95929

 Tel. 530-898-5321
 E-Mail [EMAIL PROTECTED]

--
Rod Hay
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
The History of Economic Thought Archive
http://socserv2.mcmaster.ca/~econ/ugcm/3ll3/index.html
Batoche Books
http://Batoche.co-ltd.net/
52 Eby Street South
Kitchener, Ontario
N2G 3L1
Canada




Re: Re: the expression political economy (fwd)

2000-04-08 Thread md7148


Ted, why are you "radicalizing" Marshall and Keynes? In the final
analysis, they are fundamentally different from Marx? aren't they?

Mine
 

Ted wrote:

Another illustration of this influence, an illustration connected to this
first one, is Marshall's Marxist treatment of labour in capitalism as
"alienated" labour and his view that those who do it would be able, if the
conditions of their labour were appropriately transformed, to develop into
what Marx (following Hegel) called "universally developed individuals".
These ideas are rooted in a theory of ethics (taken over from Kant and
Hegel) which treats values as objective and knowable and, on this basis,
treats the human "will" as potentially, to use Hegel's language, a "will
proper" and a "universal will" i.e. as a will whose content, unlike the
content of other animal wills, in ultimately fully open to
self-determination by reason. (A "will proper" is a will fully open to
self-determination; a "universal will" is a will whose content derives
entirely from knowledge of the good reached through reason.)

Here are passages in which Marshall treats capitalist labour as alienated
labour:

"man ought to work in order to live, his life, physical, moral, and mental,
should be strengthened and made full by his work.  But what if his inner
life be almost crushed by his work?  Is there not then suggested a terrible
truth by the term working man, when applied to the unskilled labourer ­ a
man whose occupation tends in a greater or less degree to make him live for
little save for that work that is a burden to bear?"  (Marshall, *Memorials
of Alfred Marshall*, p. 108)

"in the world's history there has been no waste product, so much more
important than all others, that it has a right to be called THE Waste
Product.  It is the higher abilities of many of the working classes; the
latent, the undeveloped, the choked-up and wasted faculties for higher work,
that for lack of opportunity have come to nothing." (*Memorials*, p. 229)

In another essay, "The Future of the Working Classes" (Memorials pp.
109-118), he sets out the conditions which would be required for all persons
to develop into "gentlemen" (his term for Marx's idea of the "universally
developed individual" - a term suggestive of the fact that, in contrast to
Marx, Marshall's version of the idea was not free of sexism).

The reason Marshall gives for the change of name from "political economy" to
"economics" is consistent with all this and indicates as well his wish to
retain the meaning which Aristotle had given to the rational form of
acquisition.  Economics was to be understood as a "moral science" concerned
with the "health" of "the body Politic".  Its object was to insure the
provision to all members of the community of the material means of a "good
life" and, as part of this, to investigate how to organize this provision
(organize what Marx calls the "realm of necessity") so as to make the work
required to accomplish it compatible with the ultimate end.

This required, for instance, that work in the realm of necessity not be
alienated labour, that it be work which both developed and required
universal capacities.  It also required that it take up a minimal amount of
time so as to maximize the time available for "the realm of freedom" where
activities were ends-in-themselves rather than means, i.e. where they were
"art" in Kant's sense of "production through freedom, i.e. through a will
that places reason at the basis of its actions" (*Critique of Judgment*, p.
145).

Keynes was also insistent that economics was a "moral science" in this sense
having as its concern the health of the body Politic (see, e.g., Collected
Writings, vol. XIV, pp. 297 and 300).  This is the meaning of his claim that
in an ideal world organized on the basis of "the most sure and certain
principles of religion and traditional virtue" (IX, p. 330), economists
would be "humble, competent people, on a level with dentists".

"But, chiefly, do not let us overestimate the importance of the economic
problem, or sacrifice to its supposed necessities other matters of greater
and more permanent significance.  It should be a matter for specialists -
like dentistry.  If economists could manage to get themselves thought of as
a humble, competent people, on a level with dentists, that would be
splendid!" (IX, p. 332)

As was true of other changes Marshall made to language, the change from
"political economy" to "economics" was, I suspect, a response to Marx.
Specifically it was a response to Marx's treatment of "political economists"
as "representing their [capitalists'] *scientific* screed and form of
existence".

Marshall's substitution of the word "waiting" for the word "abstinence" is
likely another example of such a change.  He was responding to the ridicule
Marx heaped on Senior's substitution of the latter word for the word
"capital".  Marx had called this "an unparalleled example of the discoveries
of vulgar economics!" Capital, vol. 

Re: Re: Re: Re: the expression political economy (fwd)

2000-04-08 Thread md7148


In Canada, as Rod indicates, it has taken a very special meaning 
as indicated in this quote from Wally Clement and Glen Williams, 
edicated collection _The New Canadian Political Economy_.

"while political economy is based on a tradition that investigates 
the relationship between economy and politics as they affect the 
social and cultural life of societies, within political economy there 
have been divergent tendencies.  Broadly, the liberal political 
economy tradition has placed determinate weight on the political 
system and markets, while the Marxist tradition grants primacy to 
the economic system and classes.  Such facile statements, 
however, underplay the complexity of positions within each 
tradition.  Political economy at its strongest has focused on 
processes whereby social change is located in the historical 
interaction of the economic, political, cultural, and ideological 
conflict." [1989: 6-7]

Paul, I liked the definition. There is a lot of potentional in the Marxist
tradition to explore the dialectical interaction of economics, politics,
cultural and ideological. I don't know if the authors would agree with me,
but this is what Marx would do as a critical theorist. However,as you
know, there are some Marxists in the Marxist tradition who uncritically
subcribe to the notions of "orthodox" economics and free market
capitalism. This, I would charecterize as economic determinism, has
interesting commonalities with liberal economics since it treats 
capitalism somewhat theologically and mechanistically. The typical "theory
of stages" argument says that we should let the market forces operate
untill capitalism unleashes itself. Any intervention in markets is seen as 
postponing the collapse of capitalism. so as the argument goes, this
tradition still emphasizes the primacy of economic laws rather than
revolutionary unity of theory and practice, which is so central to Marx's
thinking. is such a distortion of Marx unique to economics dicipline in
general? I have not seen, for example, such a religious reliance on
markets in other diciplinary discussions on political economy of 
capitalism

Mine

Paul Phillips,
Economics,
University of Manitoba