I believe simple math stat calculations should be sufficient for this.
For simplicity, assume X1 through X4 are iid with mean m and variance v.
Note that
var1 = (3*var2 + x4) / 4
so
cov(var1, var2) = cov(var2, (3*var2 + x4)/4)
and since var2 and x4 are independent, this covariance can be simplified.
Carry this through and substituting in m and v in the appropriate places
should give you the covariance (and hence correlation) in terms of m and
v.
Andy
-Original Message-
From: Peter Flom [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Tuesday, August 26, 2003 10:31 AM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: [R] Simple simulation in R
Hello all
I have a feeling this is very simple..but I am not sure
how to do it
My boss has two variables, one is an average of 4 numbers,
the other is an average of 3 of those numbers i.e
var1 = (X1 + X2 + X3 + X4)/4
var2 = (X1 + X2 + X3)/3
all of the X variables are supposed to be measuring similar constructs
not surprisingly, these are highly correlated (r = .98), the
question is how much of this correlation is due to the fact
that the X's are related, and how much to the fact that the
two VARs are similarly constructed
What I want to do is simulate this with normally distributed
data for the X's. That is, generate (say) 1000 sets of X1
through X4, use those to caluculate 1000 var1 and var2, and
then 1000 correlations between var1 and var2, and then plot
those results.
Any help appreciated
Peter Flom
Peter L. Flom, PhD
Assistant Director, Statistics and Data Analysis Core
Center for Drug Use and HIV Research
National Development and Research Institutes
71 W. 23rd St
www.peterflom.com
New York, NY 10010
(212) 845-4485 (voice)
(917) 438-0894 (fax)
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