RE: FW: Interesting question: Portland Archdiocese Filing Chapter 11

2004-07-07 Thread Von Keetch



Although Marci and 
Idisagree somewhat about the scope of the church autonomy doctrine, I 
certainly agree that there are some instances when courts can decide church 
issues by applying neutral principles of law. And it may be that, 
depending upon the actual circumstances in which the Portland diocese finds 
itself, that a judge or a trustee will be able to resolve all the questions 
presented using such neutral principles. 

But my question focuses 
on what happens when that isn't so. Certainly, if a court or trustee 
begins to tell the diocese which parishes to close based on some accounting 
principle of "cost", or if it limits the number of masses or other services 
performed in a certain area based on that same "cost" issue, or if it begins to 
fire priests from their current positions so as to increase the "bottom line" of 
the diocese, that raises church autonomy issues. No? And if so, I'm 
wondering what implications that may have, both for the diocese and the 
bankruptcy court.

Von G. 
Keetch
Kirton  
McConkie
Salt Lake City, 
Utah


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of 
[EMAIL PROTECTED]Sent: Wednesday, July 07, 2004 11:05 
AMTo: [EMAIL PROTECTED]Subject: Re: FW: 
Interesting question: Portland Archdiocese Filing Chapter 
11


In response to Von's posting below, I would say that the so-called 
"autonomy" doctrine is considerably narrower than Von's characterization. 
The courts have been foreclosed from deciding solely ecclesiastical disputes, 
but the question before the court must be SOLELY ecclesiastical in nature to 
justify the court's refusal of jurisdiction. If the case also involves 
neutral principles of law, the fact the court might also have to understand or 
know ecclesastical principles does not foreclose jurisdiction. If a church 
has decided to take advantage of the federal laws protecting its assets, the 
fact that a neutral, govtdecisionmaker is involved in the distribution of 
assets is not troubling under either of the Religion Clauses. The 
distribution of assets will have to occur according to neutral financial or 
monetary principles, and the judge can do that. If the Church did not want 
such a neutral arbiter, but instead wanted to deal with the crisis through pure 
ecclesiology, it was foolish to file for ch. 11.

Having said that, I assume the Church will invoke RFRA (as opposed to the 
autonomy theory) when it feels as though the generally applicable, neutral 
chapter 11 law impinges on areas it does not wish the court to enter. I 
would think the arguments would be rough-sledding, but one must wonder whether 
RFRA wasthe element that led the archdiocese to take a step that would 
havebeen unthinkable to the Church even 5 years ago.

Marci

My question is whether, under the Establishment Clause and the 
  churchautonomy doctrine that some of us advance so strongly from time to 
  time,the federal court would have the authority to order such 
  trusteesupervision of the diocese, even with diocese consent. 
  Wouldn't suchsupervision almost by necessity delve into the church's basic 
  religiousdoctrine and polity, essentially allowing a government agent to 
  "run"the diocese? If so, then where does that lead? To a 
  conclusion thatall of a bankruptcy court's normal powers (at least where 
  those powerswould be used to supervise the ecclesiastical operations of a 
  religiousorganization) may not be available in a case such as this? 
  Or to thebroader conclusion that the bankruptcy protections themselves may 
  not beavailable to a religious organization under some 
  circumstances?

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RE: The President and the Pope

2004-06-14 Thread Von Keetch






From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of 
[EMAIL PROTECTED]Sent: Monday, June 14, 2004 7:03 AMTo: 
[EMAIL PROTECTED]Subject: Re: The President and the 
Pope



In a message dated 6/14/2004 8:45:50 AM Eastern Standard Time, 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
I'm asking whether such conduct would be appropriate for a 
  President who took his constitutional obligations 
seriously.
Does this 
askforour intuitions on the appropriateness of such conduct 
or a theory of what "is appropriate for a President who took his 
constitutional obligations seriously"? Or both?

How would Marty's examples 
differ from the President asking the Pope to ask religious leaders around the 
world to denounce terrorism?Or suppose the President opposed awar in 
Iraq conducted by Nato without assistance from the United States. Would it 
be 'appropriate' for the President to ask the Pope to urgeNato leaders or 
bishops in Europe and the United States to speak out against the war?

It is difficult (at least 
for me) to find even soft (non-justiciable) reasons against such presidential 
conduct. This does not mean that I would hesitate to vote against a 
president who asked the Popeto instruct American bishops to denounce 
action I approve of. 

BobbyRobert Justin LipkinWidener University 
School of LawDelaware
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