RE: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

2016-06-07 Thread Volokh, Eugene
   1.  Like Meir, I interpreted Hillel’s post as suggesting that 
the assumptions he attributes to Jewish modesty laws are “negative.”  Hillel 
wrote, “My primary opposition to the gender-segregated swim hours is not simply 
the formal segregation of the sexes and the practical burdens this may pose on 
people. Rather, it is that the Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have 
embedded within them, and reinforce, certain assumptions and norms about 
women's and girls' bodies. I don't think the law should reflect, reinforce, or 
send those messages in public spaces.”

I assume that there would be little problem with the law reflecting or 
reinforcing positive messages about women’s and girls’ bodies; indeed, the 
government tries to send such messages often.  Indeed, consider Hillel’s 
followup post about my Wiccan hypothetical.  I hypothesized a town where “there 
are many Wiccan Goddess-worshippers, and many women who belong to that group 
want single-sex swim hours because they believe women should spend more time 
celebrating and improving their bodies free of male observation and the 
self-consciousness and body image problems that it brings.”  Hillel suggested 
that it might be different from the Orthodox Jewish example, because “the 
history and social context may be different enough to matter.”  But this 
difference, in my hypo, is simply that the assumptions about women’s and girl’s 
bodies embedded in Wiccan views would be positive, rather than negative.

Maybe I misunderstood the message Hillel was trying to send, but I wanted to 
explain why I think Meir shouldn’t be faulted for understanding an implicit 
“[negative]” in Hillel’s post.

   2.  But more broadly, as to judges’ considering “history and 
social context” in determining and evaluating the “assumptions and norms” that 
an accommodation would “reflect” or “reinforce,” wouldn’t that itself pose far 
more of an endorsement problem that it would solve?  (I agree, by the way, with 
the recent post that said that the endorsement test shouldn’t apply to 
government accommodations, but let’s set that aside for a moment.)  Courts 
would have to decide, as a matter of constitutional law, just what are the 
assumptions and norms on which a religious law is based – a matter that members 
of the religion might bitterly disagree on.  And a judgment that, for instance, 
the Wiccan assumptions are something that government actions may reflect or 
reinforce, but that the Orthodox Jewish assumptions are something that 
government actions may not reflect or reinforce, seems very likely to be 
understood as endorsement of Wiccan theology (as being founded on good 
assumptions) and disapproval of Orthodox Jewish theology (as being founded on 
bad ones).  Can that be right?

   Eugene

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Hillel Y. Levin
Sent: Tuesday, June 07, 2016 4:17 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
Subject: Re: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

I confess I'm stymied by the objection Meir has articulated to my
​offending
 paragraph. Jewish laws regarding modesty
​surely must
 reflect certain assumptions about women's bodies
​. Why else would there be a religious law concerning mixed swimming (or women 
singing in front of men, or showing their elbows or knees, or in the case of 
married women, their hair, and so forth?). You'll note that Meir added a key 
word in brackets--that the assumptions I attribute to the law are 
"negative"--that was not present in my original. Is it good form to criticize 
someone for things
​s/​
he did not say? I was taught not.

I made no claim as to what those assumptions are, and this may well be open to 
debate. But that there are assumptions underlying this religious principle is, 
indeed, beyond dispute.

Incidentally, I was taught in my roughly 20 years in various yeshivot that 
these assumptions relate to women's bodies being sexual,
 and therefore
​that they ​
​should
 be covered when men are present
​ (except in the case of a spouse, and then only sometimes). Even in saying 
that, I am still not making a value-laden claim about the assumption--true, 
false, positive, negative, or otherwise. In any event, I have no objection to a 
co-religionist (or anyone else) challenging this account of the underlying 
assumption or framing it otherwise​
. I continue to think, as a normative matter
​ at least (
I guess what Eugene means by "as a basis for ​political opposition"), that 
assumptions
​
--whatever they are
​, and whether their source is religious or not​
-- about women's bodies
​ in particular that relate to sexual modesty
should not be reflected
​ in and reinforced​
​by
 the law.

To be sure, this does not respond to the question both Eugene and Meir raise: 
should judges take into account
​an
 underlying
​, embedded​
​assumptio

Re: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

2016-06-07 Thread Hillel Y. Levin
s shared broadly by civil society until the 1950s. I would
> be interested to learn from where Hillel's assumption derives.
>
> In any event, even if Hillel's assumption were arguably correct, it would
> still be inappropriate, as Eugene inquires, for a judge (or, for that
> matter, any third-party decision-maker) to use that assumption to bias his
> decisions. A civil judge cannot be in the position of deciding religious
> questions or determining the contours of religious law. For one to conclude
> that "Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have embedded within them, and
> reinforce, certain [negative] assumptions," he would need to have a deep
> and rather sophisticated understanding not just of what those Jewish laws
> require, but also where they come from, why they exist, and how they impact
> those who follow them. That inquiry necessarily intrudes deeply into
> religious thought. Even if a civil judge were able to perform that inquiry
> properly and reach an accurate conclusion, it is not a proper role for that
> judge.
>
> Moreover, as I intimated in my first paragraph, the assumption that Hillel
> reaches is contrary to the purpose and objective behind Jewish modesty laws
> as generally understood by its adherents. As a result, using the assumption
> to guide judicial decision-making would not merely improperly impose
> physical burdens on the religious adherents, it would also impose on them
> an alternative understanding as to what their religious laws actually mean.
> If the women (and men) who willingly subject themselves to religious
> modesty laws understand those laws as *not* as reinforcing norms and
> assumptions that are contrary to public policy (broadly defined), why
> should the contrary, and possibly unfounded, assumptions of a judge (or
> anyone) play any role at all in determining their entitlement to observe
> that law at state expense? And what authority does a civil judge have to
> tell them that their laws have some alternative purpose or function?
>
> Similarly, false advertising and other claims against kosher certifying
> agencies and food manufacturers that produce food labeled "kosher," despite
> not being kosher from the perspective of the plaintiff, fail precisely
> because civil courts lack the authority to determine how Jewish law
> operates or whether a given food item is kosher under Jewish law. It
> certainly follows that courts lack the authority to determine the purpose
> underlying the laws of kashrut--say, perhaps, to promote hygiene--and then
> use that assumption to resolve related matters. Indeed, permitting a court
> to decide the *why* behind religious law is a greater intrusion into the
> religious sphere than permitting a court to decide the *what*.
>
> That analysis applies no differently when discussing religious laws
> governing modesty, regardless of the popularity of those laws in civil
> society.
>
> Meir Katz
>
> Message: 1
> Date: Sat, 4 Jun 2016 00:50:23 +
> From: "Volokh, Eugene" <vol...@law.ucla.edu>
> To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
>   <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
> Subject: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations
> Message-ID:
>   
> <cy1pr0501mb13231558cb1f1f33875cea3af6...@cy1pr0501mb1323.namprd05.prod.outlook.com>
>   
> Content-Type: text/plain; charset="utf-8"
>
> Hillel Levin writes:
>
>
>
> My primary opposition to the gender-segregated swim hours is not simply the 
> formal segregation of the sexes and the practical burdens this may pose on 
> people. Rather, it is that the Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have 
> embedded within them, and reinforce, certain assumptions and norms about 
> women's and girls' bodies. I don't think the law should reflect, reinforce, 
> or send those messages in public spaces.
>
>
>
> Setting this aside as a basis for political opposition, are courts allowed to 
> consider the underlying assumptions and norms that may be said to be embedded 
> in religious laws?  Say that in town J, there are many Orthodox Jews, and 
> many Orthodox women want single-sex swim hours because of Jewish laws that 
> are based on, and ?reinforce? ?certain assumptions and norms about women?s 
> and girls? bodies.?  Say that in town W, there are many Wiccan 
> Goddess-worshippers, and many women who belong to that group want single-sex 
> swim hours because they believe women should spend more time celebrating and 
> improving their bodies free of male observation and the self-consciousness 
> and body image problems that it brings.  And say that in town S, there are 
> many secular people, and many women in that town like single-sex swim hours 
> for the secul

Re: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

2016-06-06 Thread Alan E Brownstein
ertising and other claims against kosher certifying 
agencies and food manufacturers that produce food labeled "kosher," despite not 
being kosher from the perspective of the plaintiff, fail precisely because 
civil courts lack the authority to determine how Jewish law operates or whether 
a given food item is kosher under Jewish law. It certainly follows that courts 
lack the authority to determine the purpose underlying the laws of 
kashrut--say, perhaps, to promote hygiene--and then use that assumption to 
resolve related matters. Indeed, permitting a court to decide the why behind 
religious law is a greater intrusion into the religious sphere than permitting 
a court to decide the what.

That analysis applies no differently when discussing religious laws governing 
modesty, regardless of the popularity of those laws in civil society.

Meir Katz


Message: 1
Date: Sat, 4 Jun 2016 00:50:23 +
From: "Volokh, Eugene" <vol...@law.ucla.edu><mailto:vol...@law.ucla.edu>
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
    <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu><mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
Subject: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations
Message-ID:

<cy1pr0501mb13231558cb1f1f33875cea3af6...@cy1pr0501mb1323.namprd05.prod.outlook.com><mailto:cy1pr0501mb13231558cb1f1f33875cea3af6...@cy1pr0501mb1323.namprd05.prod.outlook.com>

Content-Type: text/plain; charset="utf-8"

Hillel Levin writes:



My primary opposition to the gender-segregated swim hours is not simply the 
formal segregation of the sexes and the practical burdens this may pose on 
people. Rather, it is that the Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have 
embedded within them, and reinforce, certain assumptions and norms about 
women's and girls' bodies. I don't think the law should reflect, reinforce, or 
send those messages in public spaces.



Setting this aside as a basis for political opposition, are courts allowed to 
consider the underlying assumptions and norms that may be said to be embedded 
in religious laws?  Say that in town J, there are many Orthodox Jews, and many 
Orthodox women want single-sex swim hours because of Jewish laws that are based 
on, and ?reinforce? ?certain assumptions and norms about women?s and girls? 
bodies.?  Say that in town W, there are many Wiccan Goddess-worshippers, and 
many women who belong to that group want single-sex swim hours because they 
believe women should spend more time celebrating and improving their bodies 
free of male observation and the self-consciousness and body image problems 
that it brings.  And say that in town S, there are many secular people, and 
many women in that town like single-sex swim hours for the secular reasons 
given in the Livingwell case I mentioned before.



Could it be that courts might uphold the single-sex pool hours in town W and 
maybe town S, because the women?s preferences are based on good assumptions and 
norms about women?s bodied, but reject them in town J because the judges think 
that Jewish law is based on bad assumptions and preferences?



Eugene


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--
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F. Elwood & Eleanor Davis Professor of Law, Emeritus
George Washington University Law School
2000 H St., NW
Washington, DC 20052
(202)994-7053
Co-author (with Professor Robert Tuttle) of "Secular Government, Religious 
People" ( Wm. B. Eerdmans Pub. Co., 2014))
My SSRN papers are here:
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=181272#reg
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To post, send message to 
Religi

RE: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

2016-06-06 Thread Conkle, Daniel O.
It certainly doesn’t answer Chip’s particular questions about the judicial role 
in the situation here, but the Supreme Court’s decision in Amos, or at least 
Justice Brennan’s opinion in that case, can be read to support a balancing 
inquiry in addressing the issue of third-party harms.  Decided two years after 
Caldor, the Court upheld Title VII’s religious-organization exception to the 
statute’s ban on religious discrimination in employment, finding the 
accommodation permissible even though it obviously imposes a burden on the 
livelihood - and the religious freedom - of employees and employment applicants 
(even for nonreligious jobs)  who do not conform to the employer’s religion.  
In his opinion concurring in the judgment, Brennan endorsed a balancing 
inquiry, concluding that the free exercise interest of religious 
organizations—“an interest in autonomy in ordering their internal affairs” [cf. 
Hosanna-Tabor]—was sufficiently important to override the burden on third 
parties, permitting the Title VII exemption because it “appropriately balances 
these competing concerns.”

Dan

Daniel O. Conkle
Robert H. McKinney Professor of Law
Indiana University Maurer School of Law
Bloomington, Indiana  47405
(812) 855-4331
fax (812) 855-0555
e-mail con...@indiana.edu<mailto:con...@indiana.edu>


From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Ira Lupu
Sent: Monday, June 06, 2016 12:50 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

I agree that it's not for the state to arbitrate between Hillel's and Meir's 
view about what is embedded in Jewish law with respect to women's bodies.  But 
I want to go back to Eugene's earlier argument that 3rd party harms are not 
relevant to the Establishment Clause problem because the accommodation is not 
religion-specific -- that is, the hours are "women only," not "Jewish women 
only."  True enough, but there is still a gerrymander here -- this is not a 
City wide policy.  It applies only to this one neighborhood pool, in a 
neighborhood with a strong Orthodox Jewish presence.  (If the policy were 
city-wide, it would help all women who want female-only swimming hours, for 
whatever reason. The sex discrimination problem would remain.)  In light of the 
conspicuous religious gerrymander, perhaps we need to add Kiryas Joel to the 
mix of relevant cases.

When the policy is 1) motivated by religion specific concerns, and 2) 
geographically limited to reflect those concerns, perhaps the Caldor problem of 
harms to third parties (men, who want those hours to swim, and the weekday 
hours may be just as important to some of them as the Sunday hours) remains.  
If so, I repeat the question -- is the relevant test one of "balancing" 
religious accommodations against inconvenience to others?  How would we do 
that, with or without interrogating religious reasoning?

On Mon, Jun 6, 2016 at 12:20 PM, Meir Katz 
<meirka...@gmail.com<mailto:meirka...@gmail.com>> wrote:
Hillel's assumption that "Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have embedded 
within them, and reinforce, certain [negative] assumptions and norms about 
women's and girls' bodies [that are contrary to public policy]" is both 
incorrect and not widely held by those who observe those laws. The laws have a 
rather different purpose, one certainly not contrary to public policy, that was 
shared broadly by civil society until the 1950s. I would be interested to learn 
from where Hillel's assumption derives.

In any event, even if Hillel's assumption were arguably correct, it would still 
be inappropriate, as Eugene inquires, for a judge (or, for that matter, any 
third-party decision-maker) to use that assumption to bias his decisions. A 
civil judge cannot be in the position of deciding religious questions or 
determining the contours of religious law. For one to conclude that "Jewish 
laws relating to sexual modesty have embedded within them, and reinforce, 
certain [negative] assumptions," he would need to have a deep and rather 
sophisticated understanding not just of what those Jewish laws require, but 
also where they come from, why they exist, and how they impact those who follow 
them. That inquiry necessarily intrudes deeply into religious thought. Even if 
a civil judge were able to perform that inquiry properly and reach an accurate 
conclusion, it is not a proper role for that judge.

Moreover, as I intimated in my first paragraph, the assumption that Hillel 
reaches is contrary to the purpose and objective behind Jewish modesty laws as 
generally understood by its adherents. As a result, using the assumption to 
guide judicial decision-making would not merely improperly impose physical 
burdens on the religious adherent

Re: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

2016-06-06 Thread Ira Lupu
; Message: 1
> Date: Sat, 4 Jun 2016 00:50:23 +
> From: "Volokh, Eugene" <vol...@law.ucla.edu> <vol...@law.ucla.edu>
> To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
>   <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu> <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
> Subject: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations
> Message-ID:
>   
> <cy1pr0501mb13231558cb1f1f33875cea3af6...@cy1pr0501mb1323.namprd05.prod.outlook.com>
>  
> <cy1pr0501mb13231558cb1f1f33875cea3af6...@cy1pr0501mb1323.namprd05.prod.outlook.com>
>   
> Content-Type: text/plain; charset="utf-8"
>
> Hillel Levin writes:
>
>
>
> My primary opposition to the gender-segregated swim hours is not simply the 
> formal segregation of the sexes and the practical burdens this may pose on 
> people. Rather, it is that the Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have 
> embedded within them, and reinforce, certain assumptions and norms about 
> women's and girls' bodies. I don't think the law should reflect, reinforce, 
> or send those messages in public spaces.
>
>
>
> Setting this aside as a basis for political opposition, are courts allowed to 
> consider the underlying assumptions and norms that may be said to be embedded 
> in religious laws?  Say that in town J, there are many Orthodox Jews, and 
> many Orthodox women want single-sex swim hours because of Jewish laws that 
> are based on, and ?reinforce? ?certain assumptions and norms about women?s 
> and girls? bodies.?  Say that in town W, there are many Wiccan 
> Goddess-worshippers, and many women who belong to that group want single-sex 
> swim hours because they believe women should spend more time celebrating and 
> improving their bodies free of male observation and the self-consciousness 
> and body image problems that it brings.  And say that in town S, there are 
> many secular people, and many women in that town like single-sex swim hours 
> for the secular reasons given in the Livingwell case I mentioned before.
>
>
>
> Could it be that courts might uphold the single-sex pool hours in town W and 
> maybe town S, because the women?s preferences are based on good assumptions 
> and norms about women?s bodied, but reject them in town J because the judges 
> think that Jewish law is based on bad assumptions and preferences?
>
>
>
> Eugene
>
>
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-- 
Ira C. Lupu
F. Elwood & Eleanor Davis Professor of Law, Emeritus
George Washington University Law School
2000 H St., NW
Washington, DC 20052
(202)994-7053
Co-author (with Professor Robert Tuttle) of "Secular Government, Religious
People" ( Wm. B. Eerdmans Pub. Co., 2014))
My SSRN papers are here:
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=181272#reg
___
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messages to others.

RE: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

2016-06-06 Thread Volokh, Eugene
   There may well be an Equal Protection Clause problem with 
sex-segregated swimming hours (whether or not equal time is given for men-only 
swimming).  But if the suggestion is that there’s an Establishment Clause 
problem – apart from the Equal Protection Clause problem – with the fact that 
the government is implementing a religiously based rule, that seems to me not 
correct, as McGowan v. Maryland, Harris v. McRae, and Bob Jones Univ. correctly 
hold.

   More broadly, if a state could (and I agree that it’s a big 
“if”) institute sex-segregated swimming hours to accommodate some women’s 
secular preferences (as described in the Livingwell case), it seems to me that 
a state is equally free to institute sex-segregated swimming hours to 
accommodate some women’s religious preferences.  (Nor would there be a problem 
under the “no religious purpose” prong of Lemon, among other things given that 
Corp. of Presiding Bishop has made clear that accommodating religious 
preferences is not an impermissible religious purpose.)

   Eugene

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Paul Finkelman
Sent: Monday, June 06, 2016 9:35 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
Subject: Re: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

The last paragraph of Professor Katz's posting below seems to point to why the 
separate swimming times are unconstitutional:  the City of New York (and the 
Courts) have no business (or competence) to regulate religious behavior or 
conduct, just as they cannot possibly determine what is kosher and what is not 
kosher. The City of NY or any government entity can certainly offer reasonable 
accommodations for religious practice.  Hence after Goldman v. Weinberger 
Congress provided an accommodation for observant Jewish men in the military to 
keep their heads covered while indoors.  One could imagine the City of New York 
having a rule on swimming clothes that would allow swimmers to wear a wet suit 
in the pools to conform to their religious views on modesty (assuming there 
were no health hazards for such suits bring extra bacteria into the pool).  
But, this is not the same as closing the pool to all men in accordance with the 
religious preferences of some potential swimmers.  Nor would it be permissible 
to require men or women  to all wear wet suits or other special "modest" 
swimming clothes to accommodate men or women who are offended (because of their 
religious beliefs) by others swimming in more revealing attire.


**
Paul Finkelman
Ariel F. Sallows Visiting Professor of Human Rights Law
College of Law
University of Saskatchewan
15 Campus Drive
Saskatoon, SK  S7N 5A6
CANADA
paul.finkel...@yahoo.com<mailto:paul.finkel...@yahoo.com>
c) 518.605.0296
and
Senior Fellow
Democracy, Citizenship and Constitutionalism Program

University of Pennsylvania





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From: Meir Katz <meirka...@gmail.com<mailto:meirka...@gmail.com>>
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
Sent: Monday, June 6, 2016 12:20 PM
Subject: Re: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

Hillel's assumption that "Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have embedded 
within them, and reinforce, certain [negative] assumptions and norms about 
women's and girls' bodies [that are contrary to public policy]" is both 
incorrect and not widely held by those who observe those laws. The laws have a 
rather different purpose, one certainly not contrary to public policy, that was 
shared broadly by civil society until the 1950s. I would be interested to learn 
from where Hillel's assumption derives.

In any event, even if Hillel's assumption were arguably correct, it would still 
be inappropriate, as Eugene inquires, for a judge (or, for that matter, any 
third-party decision-maker) to use that assumption to bias his decisions. A 
civil judge cannot be in the position of deciding religious questions or 
determining the contours of religious law. For one to conclude that "Jewish 
laws relating to sexual modesty have embedded within them, and reinforce, 
certain [negative] assumptions," he would need to have a deep and rather 
sophisticated understanding not just of what those Jewish laws require, but 
also where they come from, why they exist, and how they impact those who follow 
them. That inquiry necessarily intrudes deeply into religious thought. Even if 
a civil judge were able to perform that inquiry properly and reach an accurate 
conclusion, it is not a proper role for that judge.

Moreover, as I intimated in my first paragraph, the assumption that Hillel 
reaches is contrary to the purpose and objective behind Jewish modesty laws as 
generally understood by its adherent

Re: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

2016-06-06 Thread Meir Katz
Hillel's assumption that "Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have 
embedded within them, and reinforce, certain [negative] assumptions and 
norms about women's and girls' bodies [that are contrary to public 
policy]" is both incorrect and not widely held by those who observe 
those laws. The laws have a rather different purpose, one certainly not 
contrary to public policy, that was shared broadly by civil society 
until the 1950s. I would be interested to learn from where Hillel's 
assumption derives.


In any event, even if Hillel's assumption were arguably correct, it 
would still be inappropriate, as Eugene inquires, for a judge (or, for 
that matter, any third-party decision-maker) to use that assumption to 
bias his decisions. A civil judge cannot be in the position of deciding 
religious questions or determining the contours of religious law. For 
one to conclude that "Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have 
embedded within them, and reinforce, certain [negative] assumptions," he 
would need to have a deep and rather sophisticated understanding not 
just of what those Jewish laws require, but also where they come from, 
why they exist, and how they impact those who follow them. That inquiry 
necessarily intrudes deeply into religious thought. Even if a civil 
judge were able to perform that inquiry properly and reach an accurate 
conclusion, it is not a proper role for that judge.


Moreover, as I intimated in my first paragraph, the assumption that 
Hillel reaches is contrary to the purpose and objective behind Jewish 
modesty laws as generally understood by its adherents. As a result, 
using the assumption to guide judicial decision-making would not merely 
improperly impose physical burdens on the religious adherents, it would 
also impose on them an alternative understanding as to what their 
religious laws actually mean. If the women (and men) who willingly 
subject themselves to religious modesty laws understand those laws as 
_not_ as reinforcing norms and assumptions that are contrary to public 
policy (broadly defined), why should the contrary, and possibly 
unfounded, assumptions of a judge (or anyone) play any role at all in 
determining their entitlement to observe that law at state expense? And 
what authority does a civil judge have to tell them that their laws have 
some alternative purpose or function?


Similarly, false advertising and other claims against kosher certifying 
agencies and food manufacturers that produce food labeled "kosher," 
despite not being kosher from the perspective of the plaintiff, fail 
precisely because civil courts lack the authority to determine how 
Jewish law operates or whether a given food item is kosher under Jewish 
law. It certainly follows that courts lack the authority to determine 
the purpose underlying the laws of kashrut--say, perhaps, to promote 
hygiene--and then use that assumption to resolve related matters. 
Indeed, permitting a court to decide the _why_ behind religious law is a 
greater intrusion into the religious sphere than permitting a court to 
decide the _what_.


That analysis applies no differently when discussing religious laws 
governing modesty, regardless of the popularity of those laws in civil 
society.


Meir Katz



Message: 1
Date: Sat, 4 Jun 2016 00:50:23 +
From: "Volokh, Eugene" <vol...@law.ucla.edu>
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
        <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
Subject: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations
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Hillel Levin writes:



My primary opposition to the gender-segregated swim hours is not simply the 
formal segregation of the sexes and the practical burdens this may pose on 
people. Rather, it is that the Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have 
embedded within them, and reinforce, certain assumptions and norms about 
women's and girls' bodies. I don't think the law should reflect, reinforce, or 
send those messages in public spaces.



Setting this aside as a basis for political opposition, are courts allowed to 
consider the underlying assumptions and norms that may be said to be embedded 
in religious laws?  Say that in town J, there are many Orthodox Jews, and many 
Orthodox women want single-sex swim hours because of Jewish laws that are based 
on, and ?reinforce? ?certain assumptions and norms about women?s and girls? 
bodies.?  Say that in town W, there are many Wiccan Goddess-worshippers, and 
many women who belong to that group want single-sex swim hours because they 
believe women should spend more time celebrating and improving their bodies 
free of male observation and the self-consciousness and body image problems 
that it brings.  And say that in town S, there are many secular people, and 
many women in that town like singl

Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

2016-06-03 Thread Volokh, Eugene
Hillel Levin writes:



My primary opposition to the gender-segregated swim hours is not simply the 
formal segregation of the sexes and the practical burdens this may pose on 
people. Rather, it is that the Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have 
embedded within them, and reinforce, certain assumptions and norms about 
women's and girls' bodies. I don't think the law should reflect, reinforce, or 
send those messages in public spaces.



Setting this aside as a basis for political opposition, are courts allowed to 
consider the underlying assumptions and norms that may be said to be embedded 
in religious laws?  Say that in town J, there are many Orthodox Jews, and many 
Orthodox women want single-sex swim hours because of Jewish laws that are based 
on, and “reinforce” “certain assumptions and norms about women’s and girls’ 
bodies.”  Say that in town W, there are many Wiccan Goddess-worshippers, and 
many women who belong to that group want single-sex swim hours because they 
believe women should spend more time celebrating and improving their bodies 
free of male observation and the self-consciousness and body image problems 
that it brings.  And say that in town S, there are many secular people, and 
many women in that town like single-sex swim hours for the secular reasons 
given in the Livingwell case I mentioned before.



Could it be that courts might uphold the single-sex pool hours in town W and 
maybe town S, because the women’s preferences are based on good assumptions and 
norms about women’s bodied, but reject them in town J because the judges think 
that Jewish law is based on bad assumptions and preferences?



Eugene


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