Hello. I am new to the list and glad I found it. I am just starting out with vlans and I need some clarification. Can someone clarify the following statement:
I have the following layout: I have 1 DSLAM with 2 ethernet ports (UPLINK and MNGT) that are both going into a Cisco 2650 switch. The switch is supposed to have 2 vlans, (A and B). I also have a server that is connected to this switch. The requirement that was told to me was that the port connected to the server must be a member of both VLANs and traffic sent from this port must be tagged (for both vlans). The port connected to the UPLINK port must be an untagged member of one of the VLANs. The port connected to the MGMT port must be an untagged member of the other VLAN. I am interested to know about what it means to have a port be part of an untagged vlan and what it means to have traffic coming in from a port be tagged for both vlans? Can someone answer these question and preferrably post an example that would show me what it means? Thanks. Dave --------------------------------- Do you Yahoo!? Yahoo! Mail Plus - Powerful. Affordable. Sign up now Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=59655&t=59655 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
