I have a router on which one of its interface NAT is enabled lets ethernet 0
and on the other ethernet i.e. ethernet 1 NAT is not enabled, i wanna know
that when the traffice goes from E1 to e0 would there be any NAT involved i
mean E1 will use the NAT address to access the subnet behind e0 or
Hi,
There is no negative marking in the exam, so whehter u know the answer or
not go for the wild guesses.
Take Care
Sarosh
>From: Ilya Mazhara <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>Reply-To: Ilya Mazhara <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>Subject: CCIE written Q?
>Date: Mon, 18 Dec 2000 09:52:37 +030
Hi,
Your router is coonfigured to block ICMP packets.
Sarosh
>From: "Atif Awan" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>Reply-To: "Atif Awan" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>To: "Nasser N Khwaja" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>, <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>Subject: RE: Telnet vs Ping
>Date: Tue, 1 Aug 2000 21:58:29 +0500
>
>
>Check for the pr
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