Does this solution make sense? AS 2010 R2 eBGP eBGP AS 2001 R5 -------iBGP------- R4 eBGP AS 5 R1
R1 has an eBGP link to R5 R5 and R4 each have an eBGP link to R2 the requirement is for traffic from R1 ( AS5) to R2 ( AS2010 ) to specifically travel from R1 to R5 to R3 to R2. likewise, traffic from AS 2010 to AS 5 must travel from R2 to R3 to R5 to R1 My answer to the second requirement was to a) configure R2 to place a higher weight for incoming routes from R3 to influence the path or b) send a high MED to R1 from R3. Both ways appear to accomplish what I need to according to my trace routes. My answer to the first was to set the local preference via the neighbor statement on both of the AS 2001 routers. Then I got to wondering about the reality of this. On the OSPF side, there is only one way for traffic to get from R1 to R2, and that is by way of the instructed path.So in effect, it doe not matter what happens on the BGP side. Anyone familiar with the Solie practice labs have a comment? -- TANSTAAFL "there ain't no such thing as a free lunch" Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=66353&t=66353 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]