There are 25 messages in this issue. Topics in this digest:
1a. Re: Babel Text Blues - 'one speech' and 'common languages' From: Jim Henry 1b. Re: Babel Text Blues - 'one speech' and 'common languages' From: Matthew A. Gurevitch 2a. Re: language vs. economics From: Billy JB 2b. Re: language vs. economics From: Roman Rausch 2c. Re: language vs. economics From: Jen Runds 2d. Re: language vs. economics From: Jeffrey Daniel Rollin-Jones 2e. Re: language vs. economics From: Jen Runds 2f. Re: language vs. economics From: Eugene Oh 2g. Re: language vs. economics From: George Corley 2h. Re: language vs. economics From: MorphemeAddict 2i. Re: language vs. economics From: Roman Rausch 3. Іљте Ьлеј: Delang keyboard for Wi ndows From: Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ 4a. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Amanda Babcock Furrow 4b. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Adam Walker 4c. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ 4d. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Daniel Bowman 4e. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ 4f. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Adam Walker 4g. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Jim Henry 4h. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ 4i. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Daniel Bowman 4j. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Daniel Bowman 4k. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ 4l. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Daniel Bowman 4m. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives From: Logan Kearsley Messages ________________________________________________________________________ 1a. Re: Babel Text Blues - 'one speech' and 'common languages' Posted by: "Jim Henry" jimhenry1...@gmail.com Date: Thu Apr 5, 2012 7:16 am ((PDT)) On 4/4/12, Matthew A. Gurevitch <mag122...@aol.com> wrote: > One suggestion I would have is to translate "speech" as "words," to > differentiate from "tongue." Mark Shoulson's literal translation from Hebrew has "few words". http://www.langmaker.com/babel/englvrbm.htm -- Jim Henry http://www.pobox.com/~jimhenry/ Messages in this topic (6) ________________________________________________________________________ 1b. Re: Babel Text Blues - 'one speech' and 'common languages' Posted by: "Matthew A. Gurevitch" mag122...@aol.com Date: Thu Apr 5, 2012 3:01 pm ((PDT)) It is not a coincidence: I got the idea because I read the original Hebrew. --Matthew -----Original Message----- From: Jim Henry <jimhenry1...@gmail.com> To: CONLANG <conl...@listserv.brown.edu> Sent: Thu, Apr 5, 2012 12:09 pm Subject: Re: Babel Text Blues - 'one speech' and 'common languages' On 4/4/12, Matthew A. Gurevitch <mag122...@aol.com> wrote: > One suggestion I would have is to translate "speech" as "words," to > differentiate from "tongue." Mark Shoulson's literal translation from Hebrew has "few words". http://www.langmaker.com/babel/englvrbm.htm -- Jim Henry http://www.pobox.com/~jimhenry/ Messages in this topic (6) ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 2a. Re: language vs. economics Posted by: "Billy JB" ad...@caudimordax.org Date: Thu Apr 5, 2012 11:34 am ((PDT)) S.V.B.E.E.V. Hi, mailing list folk! I have to concur in saying that this was very interesting and fascinating. I was already aware of certain theories concerning the influence of passive constructions on blaming in languages, but to see actual (even if early) data on how specific demands and features of a language may concretely influence our way of thinking, and ergo living is highly exciting. Thanks for passing onward the video! On Wed, Apr 4, 2012 at 9:55 PM, MorphemeAddict <lytl...@gmail.com> wrote: > I found the following video very interesting. > > http://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=endscreen&NR=1&v=m9x8l9vXU9w > > It may be that speakers of languages with a strong future time reference > (e.g., English, Italian, Russian) have better lives economically than > speakers of languages with weak future time reference (e.g., Chinese, > German). > > A language designed without a mandatory tense marker (in particular, for > the future tense), e.g., Lojban, might be better for its speakers than > having an obligatory future tense marker, e.g., Esperanto. > > stevo > Messages in this topic (14) ________________________________________________________________________ 2b. Re: language vs. economics Posted by: "Roman Rausch" ara...@mail.ru Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 5:22 am ((PDT)) This does not compute for me. Even if you have weak future time reference, there are still temporal adverbs like 'tomorrow', 'next year', 'soon' etc. in your language. And actually, 'tomorrow' was present in the given example sentences, so it seems to me that still was future time reference. The conveyed information was exactly the same and using the present tense is just a grammatical, not a conceptional difference. I'd say nothing in grammar changes your experience of time. Apart from that, I would actually prefer to say "Morgen wird's regnen / kalt sein" in German... The strong-FTR vs. weak-FTR distinction seems way to rough to me: English and German both have explicit future tense markers, but also allow their omission in some contexts, whereas Japanese and Korean lack future tense markers altogether, yet German and Japanese are both put into weak-FTR? Messages in this topic (14) ________________________________________________________________________ 2c. Re: language vs. economics Posted by: "Jen Runds" evil....@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 5:32 am ((PDT)) His coding of languages into weak/strong FTR is based on the predominant form of future marking used in the language. So even though a language might have overt future tense, speakers of that language might show a strong preference for referring to the future with phrases like "I am eating tomorrow" rather than "I will eat tomorrow" Also, it probably didn't make it into the TED talk but in the past he's admitted that the FTR/savings correlation might be due to an underlying factor that causes both - ie. maybe there's something that causes people to think about the future in a certain way, and that affects both the way you talk about it (which might lead to grammaticalisation of future-reference) and your saving behaviour. Jen On 6 April 2012 08:22, Roman Rausch <ara...@mail.ru> wrote: > This does not compute for me. Even if you have weak future time reference, > there are still temporal adverbs like 'tomorrow', 'next year', 'soon' etc. > in your language. And actually, 'tomorrow' was present in the given example > sentences, so it seems to me that still was future time reference. The > conveyed information was exactly the same and using the present tense is > just a grammatical, not a conceptional difference. I'd say nothing in > grammar changes your experience of time. > > Apart from that, I would actually prefer to say "Morgen wird's regnen / kalt > sein" in German... The strong-FTR vs. weak-FTR distinction seems way to > rough to me: English and German both have explicit future tense markers, but > also allow their omission in some contexts, whereas Japanese and Korean lack > future tense markers altogether, yet German and Japanese are both put into > weak-FTR? Messages in this topic (14) ________________________________________________________________________ 2d. Re: language vs. economics Posted by: "Jeffrey Daniel Rollin-Jones" jeff.rol...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 5:40 am ((PDT)) Sorry, I have to call BS on this one. If speakers of English and Russian "had better lives economically" than speakers of German and Chinese, then English-speaking countries would have an unassailable lead over Germany and China. But the strongest economy in Europe is currently Germany, not Britain, and China has gone from being a communist backwater to an economic powerhouse in my lifetime. Judging from the thread, the article sounds like it's promoting racialist theories. On 6 Apr 2012, at 13:22, Roman Rausch <ara...@mail.ru> wrote: > This does not compute for me. Even if you have weak future time reference, > there are still temporal adverbs like 'tomorrow', 'next year', 'soon' etc. > in your language. And actually, 'tomorrow' was present in the given example > sentences, so it seems to me that still was future time reference. The > conveyed information was exactly the same and using the present tense is > just a grammatical, not a conceptional difference. I'd say nothing in > grammar changes your experience of time. > > Apart from that, I would actually prefer to say "Morgen wird's regnen / kalt > sein" in German... The strong-FTR vs. weak-FTR distinction seems way to > rough to me: English and German both have explicit future tense markers, but > also allow their omission in some contexts, whereas Japanese and Korean lack > future tense markers altogether, yet German and Japanese are both put into > weak-FTR? Messages in this topic (14) ________________________________________________________________________ 2e. Re: language vs. economics Posted by: "Jen Runds" evil....@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 5:55 am ((PDT)) It's 'all else being equal', that future-marking or lack thereof is supposedly the best indicator of economic well-being. Most countries and households do not have 'all else' even close to equal to other countries or households. If you really get down to the core of it, all his study is saying is that if you take two households which are identical in every important respect (country, culture, religion, class, etc) except for which language they speak, you can make a strong prediction about which of those households is likely to have more savings (and by how much) based on the way their language does future marking. On 6 April 2012 08:40, Jeffrey Daniel Rollin-Jones <jeff.rol...@gmail.com> wrote: > Sorry, I have to call BS on this one. If speakers of English and Russian "had > better lives economically" than speakers of German and Chinese, then > English-speaking countries would have an unassailable lead over Germany and > China. But the strongest economy in Europe is currently Germany, not Britain, > and China has gone from being a communist backwater to an economic powerhouse > in my lifetime. Judging from the thread, the article sounds like it's > promoting racialist theories. > > On 6 Apr 2012, at 13:22, Roman Rausch <ara...@mail.ru> wrote: > >> This does not compute for me. Even if you have weak future time reference, >> there are still temporal adverbs like 'tomorrow', 'next year', 'soon' etc. >> in your language. And actually, 'tomorrow' was present in the given example >> sentences, so it seems to me that still was future time reference. The >> conveyed information was exactly the same and using the present tense is >> just a grammatical, not a conceptional difference. I'd say nothing in >> grammar changes your experience of time. >> >> Apart from that, I would actually prefer to say "Morgen wird's regnen / kalt >> sein" in German... The strong-FTR vs. weak-FTR distinction seems way to >> rough to me: English and German both have explicit future tense markers, but >> also allow their omission in some contexts, whereas Japanese and Korean lack >> future tense markers altogether, yet German and Japanese are both put into >> weak-FTR? Messages in this topic (14) ________________________________________________________________________ 2f. Re: language vs. economics Posted by: "Eugene Oh" un.do...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 8:15 am ((PDT)) Good luck with proving or disproving that. Doesn't seem like a useful hypothesis/theory to me. Eugene Sent from my iPhone On 6 Apr 2012, at 13:55, Jen Runds <evil....@gmail.com> wrote: > It's 'all else being equal', that future-marking or lack thereof is > supposedly the best indicator of economic well-being. Most countries > and households do not have 'all else' even close to equal to other > countries or households. > > If you really get down to the core of it, all his study is saying is > that if you take two households which are identical in every important > respect (country, culture, religion, class, etc) except for which > language they speak, you can make a strong prediction about which of > those households is likely to have more savings (and by how much) > based on the way their language does future marking. > > On 6 April 2012 08:40, Jeffrey Daniel Rollin-Jones > <jeff.rol...@gmail.com> wrote: >> Sorry, I have to call BS on this one. If speakers of English and Russian >> "had better lives economically" than speakers of German and Chinese, then >> English-speaking countries would have an unassailable lead over Germany and >> China. But the strongest economy in Europe is currently Germany, not >> Britain, and China has gone from being a communist backwater to an economic >> powerhouse in my lifetime. Judging from the thread, the article sounds like >> it's promoting racialist theories. >> >> On 6 Apr 2012, at 13:22, Roman Rausch <ara...@mail.ru> wrote: >> >>> This does not compute for me. Even if you have weak future time reference, >>> there are still temporal adverbs like 'tomorrow', 'next year', 'soon' etc. >>> in your language. And actually, 'tomorrow' was present in the given example >>> sentences, so it seems to me that still was future time reference. The >>> conveyed information was exactly the same and using the present tense is >>> just a grammatical, not a conceptional difference. I'd say nothing in >>> grammar changes your experience of time. >>> >>> Apart from that, I would actually prefer to say "Morgen wird's regnen / kalt >>> sein" in German... The strong-FTR vs. weak-FTR distinction seems way to >>> rough to me: English and German both have explicit future tense markers, but >>> also allow their omission in some contexts, whereas Japanese and Korean lack >>> future tense markers altogether, yet German and Japanese are both put into >>> weak-FTR? Messages in this topic (14) ________________________________________________________________________ 2g. Re: language vs. economics Posted by: "George Corley" gacor...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 8:28 am ((PDT)) On Fri, Apr 6, 2012 at 11:15 AM, Eugene Oh <un.do...@gmail.com> wrote: > Good luck with proving or disproving that. Doesn't seem like a useful > hypothesis/theory to me. > > Eugene > > Now wait a minute. I'm also skeptical of this study, and I'd like to see more work done, but if we rejected every hypothesis that required us to control for other variables (the whole "all else being equal" bit), then a whole lot of sociological and economic research simply could not be done. There are ways to analyze statistics that can eliminate other variables (never perfectly, but then that's why we ask for replication). I think the most important issue to tackle here is the coding -- it seems from comments here that there were some reasonable assumptions made in coding weak-FTR and strong-FTR, but I still think it should be very carefully picked at by linguists familiar with the languages studied, and applied to other languages for corroboration. You can't be too careful when categorizing languages. Messages in this topic (14) ________________________________________________________________________ 2h. Re: language vs. economics Posted by: "MorphemeAddict" lytl...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 8:54 am ((PDT)) Basically, some people noticed an unusual correlation, and now they are trying to explain it. The research is ongoing, and no conclusions have been reached, although some of the results are enticing. stevo On Fri, Apr 6, 2012 at 11:28 AM, George Corley <gacor...@gmail.com> wrote: > On Fri, Apr 6, 2012 at 11:15 AM, Eugene Oh <un.do...@gmail.com> wrote: > > > Good luck with proving or disproving that. Doesn't seem like a useful > > hypothesis/theory to me. > > > > Eugene > > > > > Now wait a minute. I'm also skeptical of this study, and I'd like to see > more work done, but if we rejected every hypothesis that required us to > control for other variables (the whole "all else being equal" bit), then a > whole lot of sociological and economic research simply could not be done. > There are ways to analyze statistics that can eliminate other variables > (never perfectly, but then that's why we ask for replication). I think the > most important issue to tackle here is the coding -- it seems from comments > here that there were some reasonable assumptions made in coding weak-FTR > and strong-FTR, but I still think it should be very carefully picked at by > linguists familiar with the languages studied, and applied to other > languages for corroboration. You can't be too careful when categorizing > languages. > Messages in this topic (14) ________________________________________________________________________ 2i. Re: language vs. economics Posted by: "Roman Rausch" ara...@mail.ru Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 10:26 am ((PDT)) >His coding of languages into weak/strong FTR is based on the >predominant form of future marking used in the language. So even >though a language might have overt future tense, speakers of that >language might show a strong preference for referring to the future >with phrases like "I am eating tomorrow" rather than "I will eat >tomorrow" But in the video he reasoned with information that *has* to be expressed in a particular language vs. information which *may* be expressed. In Chinese you cannot say 'uncle' without expressing whether it's an uncle on the mother's or father's side and so on. But 'I am eating tomorrow' and 'I will eat tomorrow' convey exactly the same amount of information because of the temporal adverb. >From the statistical point of view, you'd need to start off with a random sample of language (preferably unrelated), but the diagram given at 9:04 in the video is clearly based on the available savings data which happens to be for European countries mostly. >Now wait a minute. I'm also skeptical of this study, and I'd like to see >more work done, but if we rejected every hypothesis that required us to >control for other variables (the whole "all else being equal" bit), then a >whole lot of sociological and economic research simply could not be done. Mhm, maybe they shouldn't have been done then... Messages in this topic (14) ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 3. Іљте Ьлеј: Delang keyboard for Wi ndows Posted by: "Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ" mi...@illte.conlang.org Date: Thu Apr 5, 2012 2:53 pm ((PDT)) Wanna write in Delang? Keyboard now available on site. http://illte.conlang.org/ (Link on bottom left) -- Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ Δебјані ҩнІљте Ьлеј http://illte.conlang.org/ http://delang.conlang.org/ ___ «Панемі ƒłе δеьлеј ҩнδеьомеłс» - анƕомі Messages in this topic (1) ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 4a. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Amanda Babcock Furrow" la...@quandary.org Date: Thu Apr 5, 2012 11:34 pm ((PDT)) On Thu, Apr 05, 2012 at 05:55:12AM -0400, Jim Henry wrote: > On 4/4/12, Logan Kearsley <chronosur...@gmail.com> wrote: > > to refer to a person whose speech is considered canonical for the > > language. I've started using "canonical speaker" as a placeholder > > term, but I wonder if there is some other existing terminology for > > this sort of thing. > > "canonical speaker" and "original speaker" both sound good to me. How about "founding speaker"? tylakèhlpë'fö, Amanda Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4b. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Adam Walker" carra...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 7:18 am ((PDT)) On Fri, Apr 6, 2012 at 1:34 AM, Amanda Babcock Furrow <la...@quandary.org>wrote: > On Thu, Apr 05, 2012 at 05:55:12AM -0400, Jim Henry wrote: > > On 4/4/12, Logan Kearsley <chronosur...@gmail.com> wrote: > > > to refer to a person whose speech is considered canonical for the > > > language. I've started using "canonical speaker" as a placeholder > > > term, but I wonder if there is some other existing terminology for > > > this sort of thing. > > > > "canonical speaker" and "original speaker" both sound good to me. > > How about "founding speaker"? > > tylakčhlpė'fö, > Amanda > Or firstspeakers? Adam Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4c. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ" mi...@illte.conlang.org Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 7:28 am ((PDT)) I think the correct term is either "primorator" or "protomilitis". On 06.04.2012 16:17, Adam Walker wrote: > On Fri, Apr 6, 2012 at 1:34 AM, Amanda Babcock > Furrow<la...@quandary.org>wrote: > >> On Thu, Apr 05, 2012 at 05:55:12AM -0400, Jim Henry wrote: >>> On 4/4/12, Logan Kearsley<chronosur...@gmail.com> wrote: >>>> to refer to a person whose speech is considered canonical for the >>>> language. I've started using "canonical speaker" as a placeholder >>>> term, but I wonder if there is some other existing terminology for >>>> this sort of thing. >>> "canonical speaker" and "original speaker" both sound good to me. >> How about "founding speaker"? >> >> tylakčhlpė'fö, >> Amanda >> > > Or firstspeakers? > Adam -- Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ Δебјані ҩнІљте Ьлеј http://illte.conlang.org/ http://delang.conlang.org/ ___ «Панемі ƒłе δеьлеј ҩнδеьомеłс» - анƕомі Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4d. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Daniel Bowman" danny.c.bow...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 7:31 am ((PDT)) Or "glossarch" 2012/4/6 Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ <mi...@illte.conlang.org> > I think the correct term is either "primorator" or "protomilitis". > > > On 06.04.2012 16:17, Adam Walker wrote: > >> On Fri, Apr 6, 2012 at 1:34 AM, Amanda Babcock Furrow<la...@quandary.org> >> **wrote: >> >> On Thu, Apr 05, 2012 at 05:55:12AM -0400, Jim Henry wrote: >>> >>>> On 4/4/12, Logan Kearsley<chronosurfer@gmail.**com<chronosur...@gmail.com>> >>>> wrote: >>>> >>>>> to refer to a person whose speech is considered canonical for the >>>>> language. I've started using "canonical speaker" as a placeholder >>>>> term, but I wonder if there is some other existing terminology for >>>>> this sort of thing. >>>>> >>>> "canonical speaker" and "original speaker" both sound good to me. >>>> >>> How about "founding speaker"? >>> >>> tylakčhlpė'fö, >>> Amanda >>> >>> >> Or firstspeakers? >> Adam >> > > -- > Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ > > Δебјані ҩнІљте Ьлеј > http://illte.conlang.org/ http://delang.conlang.org/ > ___ > «Панемі ƒłе δеьлеј ҩнδеьомеłс» - анƕомі > Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4e. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ" mi...@illte.conlang.org Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 7:40 am ((PDT)) No, glossarch would mean the same as native speaker, while primorator means first, or initial speaker. On 06.04.2012 16:30, Daniel Bowman wrote: > Or "glossarch" > > 2012/4/6 Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ<mi...@illte.conlang.org> > >> I think the correct term is either "primorator" or "protomilitis". >> >> >> On 06.04.2012 16:17, Adam Walker wrote: >> >>> On Fri, Apr 6, 2012 at 1:34 AM, Amanda Babcock Furrow<la...@quandary.org> >>> **wrote: >>> >>> On Thu, Apr 05, 2012 at 05:55:12AM -0400, Jim Henry wrote: >>>>> On 4/4/12, Logan >>>>> Kearsley<chronosurfer@gmail.**com<chronosur...@gmail.com>> >>>>> wrote: >>>>> >>>>>> to refer to a person whose speech is considered canonical for the >>>>>> language. I've started using "canonical speaker" as a placeholder >>>>>> term, but I wonder if there is some other existing terminology for >>>>>> this sort of thing. >>>>>> >>>>> "canonical speaker" and "original speaker" both sound good to me. >>>>> >>>> How about "founding speaker"? >>>> >>>> tylakčhlpė'fö, >>>> Amanda >>>> >>>> >>> Or firstspeakers? >>> Adam >>> >> -- >> Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ >> >> Δебјані ҩнІљте Ьлеј >> http://illte.conlang.org/ http://delang.conlang.org/ >> ___ >> «Панемі ƒłе δеьлеј ҩнδеьомеłс» - анƕомі >> -- Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ Δебјані ҩнІљте Ьлеј http://illte.conlang.org/ http://delang.conlang.org/ ___ «Панемі ƒłе δеьлеј ҩнδеьомеłс» - анƕомі Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4f. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Adam Walker" carra...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 9:44 am ((PDT)) I likes! Adam On Fri, Apr 6, 2012 at 9:30 AM, Daniel Bowman <danny.c.bow...@gmail.com>wrote: > Or "glossarch" > > 2012/4/6 Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ <mi...@illte.conlang.org> > > > I think the correct term is either "primorator" or "protomilitis". > > > > > > On 06.04.2012 16:17, Adam Walker wrote: > > > >> On Fri, Apr 6, 2012 at 1:34 AM, Amanda Babcock Furrow< > la...@quandary.org> > >> **wrote: > >> > >> On Thu, Apr 05, 2012 at 05:55:12AM -0400, Jim Henry wrote: > >>> > >>>> On 4/4/12, Logan Kearsley<chronosurfer@gmail.**com< > chronosur...@gmail.com>> > >>>> wrote: > >>>> > >>>>> to refer to a person whose speech is considered canonical for the > >>>>> language. I've started using "canonical speaker" as a placeholder > >>>>> term, but I wonder if there is some other existing terminology for > >>>>> this sort of thing. > >>>>> > >>>> "canonical speaker" and "original speaker" both sound good to me. > >>>> > >>> How about "founding speaker"? > >>> > >>> tylakčhlpė'fö, > >>> Amanda > >>> > >>> > >> Or firstspeakers? > >> Adam > >> > > > > -- > > Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ > > > > Δебјані ҩнІљте Ьлеј > > http://illte.conlang.org/ http://delang.conlang.org/ > > ___ > > «Панемі ƒłе δеьлеј ҩнδеьомеłс» - анƕомі > > > Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4g. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Jim Henry" jimhenry1...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 10:12 am ((PDT)) > On 06.04.2012 16:30, Daniel Bowman wrote: >> Or "glossarch" On 4/6/12, Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ <mi...@illte.conlang.org> wrote: > No, glossarch would mean the same as native speaker, while primorator > means first, or initial speaker. I'm not sure how "glossarch" could be parsed as "native speaker". It could mean either "language ruler" or "language pioneer", and I guess it's the latter sense that Daniel Bowman intended. I have a slight dispreference for it over the plain English terms suggested so far (canonical speaker, founding speaker, etc.) not because it's Greek but because to people with only a vague familiarity with Greek I suspect the "arch" element suggests rulers and forms of goverment (from words like "monarch", "monarchy", "anarchy" etc.) more than pioneers and beginnings. The only English word using "arch" in that sense I can think of offhand is "menarche", and that gets far fewer Google hits than "monarchy". -- Jim Henry http://www.pobox.com/~jimhenry/ Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4h. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ" mi...@illte.conlang.org Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 10:27 am ((PDT)) Well..., glossarch could also mean "language ruler", however that would be a possible synonym for a conlanger, not for those who are the first speakers of a conlang. On 06.04.2012 19:12, Jim Henry wrote: >> On 06.04.2012 16:30, Daniel Bowman wrote: >>> Or "glossarch" > On 4/6/12, Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ<mi...@illte.conlang.org> wrote: >> No, glossarch would mean the same as native speaker, while primorator >> means first, or initial speaker. > I'm not sure how "glossarch" could be parsed as "native speaker". It > could mean either "language ruler" or "language pioneer", and I guess > it's the latter sense that Daniel Bowman intended. I have a slight > dispreference for it over the plain English terms suggested so far > (canonical speaker, founding speaker, etc.) not because it's Greek but > because to people with only a vague familiarity with Greek I suspect > the "arch" element suggests rulers and forms of goverment (from words > like "monarch", "monarchy", "anarchy" etc.) more than pioneers and > beginnings. The only English word using "arch" in that sense I can > think of offhand is "menarche", and that gets far fewer Google hits > than "monarchy". > -- Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ Δебјані ҩнІљте Ьлеј http://illte.conlang.org/ http://delang.conlang.org/ ___ «Панемі ƒłе δеьлеј ҩнδеьомеłс» - анƕомі Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4i. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Daniel Bowman" danny.c.bow...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 10:37 am ((PDT)) > It > could mean either "language ruler" or "language pioneer", and I guess > it's the latter sense that Daniel Bowman intended. Yeah...after some thought I agree with Jim's assessment. I think "language pioneer" in and of itself might be a good label. It is in plain English and it conveys the sense we are looking for: a person who is the first one to explore a language. This is opposed to a 'language designer' that could be a label for any conlang. However, I will start saying that I am the Glossarch of Angosey, because it just...rolls off the tongue! Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4j. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Daniel Bowman" danny.c.bow...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 10:39 am ((PDT)) > > > Yeah...after some thought I agree with Jim's assessment. I think > "language pioneer" in and of itself might be a good label. It is in plain > English and it conveys the sense we are looking for: a person who is the > first one to explore a language. This is opposed to a 'language designer' > that could be a label for any conlang. > > *conlanger Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4k. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ" mi...@illte.conlang.org Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 11:07 am ((PDT)) I see your point. It is obvious that I misinterpretated glossarch when I first checked it out. Conlanger is the generic term, while the conlanger is glossarch of each of the languages (s)he has created. Most likely the glossarchs of a conlang is also primorators of the same language. But non-glossarchs of a conlang can also be "first speakers", or primorators. So I still thinks that's the word that was requested by Logan Kearsley. On 06.04.2012 19:37, Daniel Bowman wrote: >> It >> could mean either "language ruler" or "language pioneer", and I guess >> it's the latter sense that Daniel Bowman intended. > > Yeah...after some thought I agree with Jim's assessment. I think "language > pioneer" in and of itself might be a good label. It is in plain English > and it conveys the sense we are looking for: a person who is the first one > to explore a language. This is opposed to a 'language designer' that could > be a label for any conlang. > > However, I will start saying that I am the Glossarch of Angosey, because it > just...rolls off the tongue! -- Тоłе МаьіЛеƒіљ МаьіПаніљ Δебјані ҩнІљте Ьлеј http://illte.conlang.org/ http://delang.conlang.org/ ___ «Панемі ƒłе δеьлеј ҩнδеьомеłс» - анƕомі Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4l. Re: primorator was: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Daniel Bowman" danny.c.bow...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 11:20 am ((PDT)) I propose the following nomenclature: 1. Conlanger: Someone who creates languages. 2. Glossarch: Someone who oversees the creation of a certain language and retaining control of its canon (i.e. Glossarch of Angosey). 3. Primorator: First speaker (first person to attempt to use a given language?) Messages in this topic (17) ________________________________________________________________________ 4m. Re: Terminology for Non-native Natives Posted by: "Logan Kearsley" chronosur...@gmail.com Date: Fri Apr 6, 2012 11:21 am ((PDT)) On 5 April 2012 02:28, BPJ <b...@melroch.se> wrote: > On 2012-04-05 02:59, Daniel Bowman wrote: >> >> How about "urspeaker". Also brings a nice Babel-textish sound to it. > > What, then, about "original speaker" rather than a macaronic > coinage? I had to look that up! (macaronic) Congratulations, that doesn't happen very often & I like learning new words. > Two things to note: > > 1. You (Logan) might reverse the meaning of > "native speaker": you and your fiancée weren't > native with the language, but the language is > native with you two in the sense that you are > the language's parents! Eh... that's a stretch. My aim with the documentation is to produce something in an academic, _Describing Morphosyntax_ style, so I'd like to avoid using standard terminology in non-standard ways. Hence asking about terminology in the first place. > 2. You *can* be a native speaker of more than one language. True, but were my fiancee a native multilingual, our total list of native languages would still not include one that only began to come into existence 5 months ago! On 5 April 2012 03:55, Jim Henry <jimhenry1...@gmail.com> wrote: > On 4/4/12, Logan Kearsley <chronosur...@gmail.com> wrote: >> to refer to a person whose speech is considered canonical for the >> language. I've started using "canonical speaker" as a placeholder >> term, but I wonder if there is some other existing terminology for >> this sort of thing. > > For some conlangs with a speaker community, I refer to "fluent speaker > intiution" rather than "native speaker intuition", even if the speaker > community in question does have some native speakers, like that of > Esperanto -- their judgement isn't necessarily weightier than that of > other fluent speakers. I'm guessing Mev Pailom is too new for you and > your fiancée to be fluent in it yet, though. Yup. I sadly cannot learn a new language in only 5 months of sporadic usage, especially when it's still under construction during the learning process. > "canonical speaker" and > "original speaker" both sound good to me. "Original speaker" captures a different sense for me. I'm looking for something that is a superset of "native speaker", including "fluent speakers" in the Esperanto-community sense- a word for the set of all people whose performance is exemplary of definitional of correctness. Here's a collection of things suggested so far, and what they seem to mean: Native speaker - we all know that one Canonical speaker - my coinage for someone whose usage defines correctness Primorator == Original speaker == Founding speaker - one of the first people to learn / use a language (possibly not the same as the creator) Language pioneer - same, as far as I can tell from the discussion. One of the first to use a new language Glossarch - a single person or entity who is authoritative for a language. Probably the creator, but not necessarily, if the language if the language is inherited or something. With that breakdown, we could say the canonical speakers of English are the native speakers, the canonical speakers of Esperanto are the fluent speakers, and the canonical speakers of Mev Pailom are also the founding speakers. Meanwhile, the glossarch of gjâ-zym-byn is Jim Henry, who is also a founding speaker and a canonical speaker, the glossarch of French is the French Academy, made up of native speakers, Mev Pailom has no glossarch. -l. Messages in this topic (17) ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Yahoo! 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