Hi Michiel,
You're right there. The OP may have assumed that the numbers were
percentages, whereas they are the eigenvalues, which remain to be
divided by the total variance to get the cumulative fraction of
variance explained. The variance explained by the first ten pc's in
this case is approxima
>Hi Michiel,
>
>I disagree, and so does semantics. The cumulative variance of a pc is the
>variance of it plus the sum of the preceding ones. You're talking about the
>cumulative fraction of the total variance.
You are right about the proper word usage. It seemed to me from his question,
the use
Hi Michiel,
I disagree, and so does semantics. The cumulative variance of a pc is the
variance of it plus the sum of the preceding ones. You're talking about the
cumulative fraction of the total variance.
Cheers,
Tajerk
On Dec 16, 2011 12:07 AM, "Niesen, Michiel" wrote:
>Date: Thu, 15 Dec 201
Thanks Micheal for pointing out the mistake
On Fri, Dec 16, 2011 at 4:20 AM, Niesen, Michiel wrote:
> >Date: Thu, 15 Dec 2011 15:11:12 -0500
> >From: "R.S.K.Vijayan"
> >Subject: [gmx-users] Eigenvalue values from PCA (a general question)
> >To: gmx-users@gromacs.org
> >Message-ID:
> > <
>
>Date: Thu, 15 Dec 2011 15:11:12 -0500
>From: "R.S.K.Vijayan"
>Subject: [gmx-users] Eigenvalue values from PCA (a general question)
>To: gmx-users@gromacs.org
>Message-ID:
>
>Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"
>
>Hi all
>
>I have a query about the eigenvalue values obtained fro
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