"gsniderJBoss" wrote :
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| | 1) A CMT transaction TX1 is created in the EJB via hibernate call.
| | 2) the ejb uses the Resource Adapter to schedule work
| | 3) A new transaction is created TX2 by the WorkManager?
| | 4) TX2 will now participate in the XA transaction?
| |
"gsniderJBoss" wrote : How can I coordinate these transactions? Do I need an
RA?
Ok after looking at this post again and Adrian's response I think you should
set the Xid on the ExecutionContext , this will not create new transaction TX2.
Oh you have done this and I did not read this , my bad :(
Thanks, I assumed I would need to make these calls to an RA. But let's suppose
I do that. Will that help my transaction issue?
Will the RA be treated as a resource manager (for inclusion in XA)? In other
words, will the following be true if I write and deploy an RA that makes the
calls to Wo
"vickyk" wrote : "gsniderJBoss" wrote : If a stateless EJB gets a
JBossWorkManager (see code below) without going through an RA, should
everything still work?
| |
| I am not able to understand why you are using the workmanager through the
EJB , it should be used by the RA .
| It does no
"gsniderJBoss" wrote : If a stateless EJB gets a JBossWorkManager (see code
below) without going through an RA, should everything still work?
|
I am not able to understand why you are using the workmanager through the EJB ,
it should be used by the RA .
It does not make any sense to me using t
Note about above:
the call to WorkManager.scheduleWork takes an empty ExecutionContext. I've
considered creating an ExecutionContext and setting the Xid to simulate
transaction-importing. But I cannot for the life of me get the Xid of the
first transaction (TX1 above).
So if anyone has ideas
