I ask that everyone bear with me and after my first post I feel I have
better asked and explained what I'm not sure of as far as Virgil's dual
voice in Aeneas. I may be very far off but I would appreciate any input.
Do you think Virgil employs the use of voice in Aeneas to exhibit first
the humanly aspects in his character and then later to show the ruthless
inhuman side of him? Or does Virgil employ Aeneas to convey that history
is cyclic and though at first Aeneas is human and struggling against the
odds to fulfill his destiny, but in the end is as savage and ruthless as
the odds he faced in the beginning? Does the voice of Aeneas reflect pain
and sacrifice transposed into inevitable violence? Why exactly does Vergil
portray Aeneas at one moment as an actual participant and then at another
he is as a bystander/narrator?
Kimber
Kimberly Tate [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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