Tavis Barr says:

> ..if there is no tendency of the profit rate to fall, why 
> has it been on a downward trend for the last 25 years or so?

First: Are economists in agreement on this?  I have economist
acquaintances who say otherwise. Just asking.

Secondly: If this rate really has been falling, it could perfectly well
do so without being caused by mechanization/automation. Even a
static economy (static in the sense of negligible technical change and
productivity growth in the period considered) will experience long run
financial crisis symptoms simply due to accumulation of assets. As long
as all sorts of returns (from loans, bonds, stocks) are re-invested,
aggregate net assets (mirrored by net debts) will grow, regardless of
productivity growth and technical change. Sooner or later the net
assets holders (and I am not only talking of the financial sector here,
also any economic agent who holds dividend-giving assets - including
firm owners who behave as rentiers towards their own firms) will have
trouble upholding a return flow that is proportional to net assets.

Thirdly: Imagine a future class society with 5% of the workforce in
manufacturing, and where physical production is undertaken 90% by
robots and automated processes with the workers as overseers and
maintenance personnel. Since this is a class society the workforce will
be dependent on selling their labour power to capitalists on the
market. This extremely productive society will therefore employ the
majority of workers in a huge service sector, which to a great degree
is employed with catering to the needs of the capitalist class. This
service sector will - being a service sector - have a lower organic
composition of capital than industry, and therefore give good
possibilities for exploitiation of employees.  The capitalists will
exploit those service workers as hard as possible, and accumulate as
today.  If returns to capitalists in the automated industrial sector
are lower than in the service sector, the industrial sector will
shrink. But this will increase prices for products from this sector
until profitability there is comparable to that of the service sector.

So my conclusion is that as long as a society is divided into two main
classes: Capitalists and wage labourers, there will be the same
possibilities for harvesting profits as today, or for that sake 50
years ago. The average rate of profit doesn't depend on level of
automation/mechanization, but on the power balance between exploiters
and the exploited.

And back to my second point: To the degree one observes a some-decades 
long path towards stagnation and crisis in capitalism (a "long
wave"), this is explained by accumulation due to compound returns, not
by increased organic composition.

Futhermore to the third point above: If I am right here, any marxist
who believes that socialism  and then communism is inevitable in the
long run because capitalism is doomed due to a profit rate tending
towards zero because of automation/mechanization, must be in error.
Capitalism can continue indefinitely as long as one class has the power
to coerce the majority to work for them by control over their means of
living.

Incidently I _do_ believe that socialism and some sort of "asymptote"
towards communism is bound to come in the long run. But this belief is
based on the relentless and gradual increase in average workforce
education level and the communication technologies that the capitalists
themselves need in the global competitiveness rat race. In this sense
they are themselves bringing forth the tools that will mean their
future demise.  But this is another discussion.

All this, IMHO, of course. I may be wrong.

cheers,


Trond
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