It's two things, really. In the late 19th century the Supreme Court said that
corporations were persons for the purposes of the 14th amendment (they still are).
That means they are entitled to equal protection and due process. Then, in the 1890s,
a laissez-faire Court started to interpret the
I have seen this before - the connection between the 14th amendment and
the rise of joint-stock corporations. Anybody care to explain
this for me?
Thanks, Ellen
"The court does not wish to hear argument on the question whether the
provision in the
