I've really been on a roll this week; the formula for the lines that I
presented was completely wrong.
But I'm glad I learned about mapply. I used this:
mapply(abline,
(converge$kY + tan((90-converge$kT) * pi / 180)*(-converge$kX)),
tan((90-converge$kT) * pi / 180))
Tom!
On Thu, Apr 2,
May be:
plot(c(-1, 1) , c(-1, 1), type = "n")
n = 4
a = rep(0, n)
b = 1:n/n
fun = function(i, a, b, col = 1 , ...) {
abline(a[i], b[i], col = col[i], ...)
}
lapply(1:n, fun, a=a, b=b, col = 1:n)
Andrea
Thomas Levine wrote:
I really want to do this:
abline(
a=tan(-kT*pi/180),
b=kY-tan(-
Rolf Turner wrote:
On 2/04/2009, at 7:04 AM, Thomas Levine wrote:
I really want to do this:
abline(
a=tan(-kT*pi/180),
b=kY-tan(-kT*pi/180)*kX
)
where kX,kY and kT are vectors of equal length. But I can't do that
with abline unless I use a loop, and I haven't figured out the least
unelegan
On 2/04/2009, at 7:04 AM, Thomas Levine wrote:
I really want to do this:
abline(
a=tan(-kT*pi/180),
b=kY-tan(-kT*pi/180)*kX
)
where kX,kY and kT are vectors of equal length. But I can't do that
with abline unless I use a loop, and I haven't figured out the least
unelegant way of writing the l
I really want to do this:
abline(
a=tan(-kT*pi/180),
b=kY-tan(-kT*pi/180)*kX
)
where kX,kY and kT are vectors of equal length. But I can't do that
with abline unless I use a loop, and I haven't figured out the least
unelegant way of writing the loop yet. So is there a way to do this
without a loo
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