I am using 'lavaan' to estimate a single indicators model. My model itself looks like this:
sem1model <- ' Imp ~ Ux Mem ~ Ux + Imp AE ~ Imp + Mem + Ux UL ~ Ux + Imp + AE ' sem1 <- sem(sem1model, data = mydata) I am getting a decent fit and want to use this model. My unstandardized coefficient for regressing Imp onto UX is 1.057, taken from parameterEstimates(sem1, standardized = TRUE): lhs op rhs est 1 Impression ~ UX 1.057 Question: Can I know say: in order to predict Imp based on Ux it's Imp = Ux * 1.057? Or should there also be an intercept present in this formula? I did not specify any intercepts anywhere in my model? If there should be an intercept, then where can I find it in the object sem1? Thanks a lot! -- Dimitri Liakhovitski ______________________________________________ R-help@r-project.org mailing list -- To UNSUBSCRIBE and more, see https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help PLEASE do read the posting guide http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.