Hi all,
I'm still unsure of how I should interpret results given that using PGLS to
predict group size from brain size gives different significance levels and
lambda estimates than when I do the reverse (i.e., predict brain size from
group size). Biologically, I don't think this makes any
Thanks Liam,
A couple of questions:
How does one do a hypothesis test on a regression, controlling for phylogeny,
if not using PGLS as I am doing? I realize one could use independent
contrasts, though I was led to believe that is equivalent to a PGLS with lambda
= 1.
I take it from what
