Dear experts, I am new in the comparative phylogenetic methods. By reading papers, when there is a term saying a trait is "phylogenetically labile”, does it mean that the trait is phylogenetically “convergent", with similar values for species from distantly related clades, or does it mean “random” values, irrespectively of phylogenetic relatedness?
Another question related to this term, would you treat intraspecific variation, e.g. color variations of different individuals, or phenotypic plasticity, as a kind of phylogenetically labile, no matter whether there is a genetic basis or not? Thanks a lot! All the best Ting-Wen -- Ting-Wen Chen J.F. Blumenbach Institute of Zoology and Anthropology Georg August University Goettingen Berliner Str. 28 D-37073 Goettingen, Germany Tel: +49-55139-10943 _______________________________________________ R-sig-phylo mailing list - R-sig-phylo@r-project.org https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-sig-phylo Searchable archive at http://www.mail-archive.com/r-sig-phylo@r-project.org/
