Employees whose employers employ less than 15 people also have no protection 
under federal law
Marc

----- Original Message -----
From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu <religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu>
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
Sent: Mon Jul 19 10:45:09 2010
Subject: Re: 10th Circuit Finds Church Immune From Workplace DiscriminationSuit

Rick is casting a larger net than my post suggested.  The relevant universe 
here is the universe of employees.  As in the speech cases (and in particular 
the defamation cases since we're dealing with employment), there should be some 
weighing of interests here.  Right now, in my view, the balance is out of whack 
in this universe.  (If there are other harms arising from other First Amendment 
rights that require redressing, I'm all in favor of exploring those as well.)
 
 Employees assume that they cannot be discriminated against on the basis of 
gender (including a right not to be a victim of sexual harassment).  It turns 
out in most states that they are UNLESS the employer is religious. (Don't 
forget the Supreme Court has not yet ruled on the ministerial exception so 
whether it is a robust or less robust or not a constitutional right still 
remains in limbo.) So a bishop who creates a hostile working environment or who 
persistently engages in sexual innuendo typically is immune or who arbitrarily 
decides a man is a better choice than a better qualified woman is immune.  
 
Employees are doubly disabled in these scenarios.  First, as Americans the 
culture encourages them to trust religious leaders (though surely that is 
declining in light of the steady investigative reporting suggesting folks do 
that at their peril).  More importantly, because of the ministerial exception, 
few cases are ever filed, let alone litigated, and, therefore, the incidence of 
gender discrimination is not publicized.  So women are going into these jobs 
with expectations of fairness that are not borne out, because of a First 
Amendment doctrine.  
 
One option is to carve back on the right so that no employer who fails to 
advise an employee of this issue can claim it.  Bob objected to that, because 
the ministerial exception is jurisdictional.  But if this is the result, why 
should it be?  Why isn't it a right, like the freedom of speech in defamation 
cases, which carries with it some obligations and weighing, depending on the 
scenario?
 
One option is to have the government inform applicants through public 
education, as in add language to the tax forms.....  Another is to have anyone 
who is taking government funds for mission have to agree as a condition of 
receiving the funds to inform employees about the risks they are taking by 
taking the employment.
 
Is Rick saying none of these options are constitutional and/or desirable?
 
Marci
 
Marci A. Hamilton
Paul R. Verkuil Chair in Public Law
Benjamin N. Cardozo School of Law
Yeshiva University
 
 
In a message dated 7/19/2010 9:50:33 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time, 
rgarn...@nd.edu writes:

        I agree, for what it’s worth, that it makes good sense for attorneys 
representing churches and religious institutions to advise their clients to 
inform those in ministerial positions (that is, in any position that the church 
regards as ministerial) about their (the institutions’) religious liberty.  But 
I’m wondering if Marci’s proposed warning requirement applies only to religious 
employers (and if so, why?  Because they are employers?  Because they are 
religious?) or to all whose rights-exercise might cause “harm”?

         
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