If I have a Sage expression, I can do
latex(foo)
to get LaTeX code. Is there an inverse to that function?
Frequently, I do a calculation in Sage and get something complicated. I
find it easier to look at when typeset by TeX, so I call latex(), paste
the result into a document, then typeset.
On 05/12/2011 09:38:46 PM, Dan Drake wrote:
If I have a Sage expression, I can do
latex(foo)
to get LaTeX code. Is there an inverse to that function?
Frequently, I do a calculation in Sage and get something complicated.
I
find it easier to look at when typeset by TeX, so I call latex(),