I assume the non public property._reverse_property is just what I'm
looking for. :)
On Jan 26, 2:06 pm, Kent jkentbo...@gmail.com wrote:
Is there a straightforward way to determine if a RelationshipProperty
has a corresponding reverse (backref)?
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I wrote:
Hi,
Does accessing a backref always have to issue SQL, even if
the object to
be loaded already exists in the identity map? For example, if I have a
many-to-one lazy-loaded relationship from Master to Detail with a
backref, the statement master.details[0].master will issue
SQL
King Simon-NFHD78 wrote:
to
master_id = sa.Column(sa.Integer,
sa.ForeignKey(Master.__table__.c.id))
...and now it seems to work! So is this a bug?
yes, that would be a bug. There are some other scenarios where this kind
of thing occurs (lazy clause doesn't optimize) related to
Michael Bayer wrote:
King Simon-NFHD78 wrote:
to
master_id = sa.Column(sa.Integer,
sa.ForeignKey(Master.__table__.c.id))
...and now it seems to work! So is this a bug?
yes, that would be a bug. There are some other scenarios
where this kind
of thing occurs (lazy clause
On Jun 26, 2008, at 7:22 AM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
hi
just an idea: is it possible to have half-baked backref-declarations?
i want to use the SA's way of inventing backrefs from a name, and just
provide some extra arguments to that invention.
instead now i have a full backref(...)
On Jun 26, 2008, at 1:22 PM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
sort of,
x: relation( Foo, primaryjoin=, secondaryjoin=,remote_side=,whatever,
backref= halfbackref(name=abc,post_update=True))
and let it construct the backref from relation.primary/secondaryjoin
etc, putting name and whatever
