I am just wanting to clarify that I am on the same page with the septic
shock and IV fluids.
Patient has severe sepsis already and has a lactic of 3 and then
progresses to systolic BP in the 80's. Patient is NOT given fluids to
total 30ml/kg, however only given 1 liter NS and then vasopressors
needed to be initiated. Physician continues to only document severe
sepsis, am I correct in thinking that even though patient required
vasopressors and BP < 90 I cannot take that as septic shock? I can ONLY
take septic shock if patient had adequately received the 30ml/kg IV
fluids and then continued to be hypotensive?
Thanks,
CariAnn

>>> "Barnes-Daly, Mary Ann" <[email protected]> 11/10/2015
12:30 PM >>>

Physician documentation is used only if the other criteria are not
found.
In this case, severe sepsis is present – so the Lactate of 4.3 = septic
shock 
 

Thanks, 
 
MARY ANN BARNES-DALY RN BSN CCRN DC  | Clinical Performance Improvement
Consultant
Sutter Health - Office of Patient Experience | 2200 River Plaza Drive,
Sacramento, CA 95833
Mobile 916.200.5604| Office 916.286.6717  | [email protected] 
 
“You never change things by fighting the existing reality. To change
something, build a new model that makes the existing model obsolete.”   
   ~R. Buckminster Fuller 

 

From: Sepsisgroups [mailto:[email protected]]
On Behalf Of Tribuiani, Barbara
Sent: Wednesday, November 04, 2015 10:21 AM
To: '[email protected]'
Subject: [Sepsis Groups] Septic Shock Present

 
Hello All-
 
I have a patient who meets criteria for septic shock due to the initial
lactate of 4.3 however the physicians clearly document that the patient
has “severe sepsis without shock” How do I answer the question “septic
shock present” in this case??
 
Thank you,
Barb
 
Barbara Tribuiani, RN, BSN
Quality Improvement Department
Phone: 610-237-4208
Fax: 610-237-4264
 
T Together 
E Everyone 
A Achieves
M More
 

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