I agreed it breaks the SDP offer/answer protocol, but i think it won't break SIP controlling protocol rules. The context of the scenario is:
UAC(user) <---------->AS (Announcement Sever) AS needs to know the RTP IP/port of UAC for to send some announcement traffic. The RTP traffic is "one way" i.e from AS to UAC. So in the above context, what's the purpose of sending SDP information (i.e RTP IP and port ) of AS to UAC?. I can see only to compliant for full fill the offer/answer model. Thanks in advance. Regards Channa On Wed, Nov 19, 2008 at 7:46 PM, Paul Kyzivat <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > No this isn't valid. The offer must be answered. > > This is the Session Initiation Protocol. Without an answer you have not > initiated a session. > > Paul > > NC Reddy wrote: > >> Hi, >> I have the following context question: >> >> UAC <------------->AS(B2BUA) >> | ------F1 (INVITE)---> >> * SDP-Offer* >> >> <-----F2: 100 Trying--- >> >> <----F3: 200 OK*(NO-SDP)*---- //Does this step is valid >> without SDP, ?: >> >> ------F4:ACK------------> >> >> Questions: >> >> - Does the 200 OK response without SDP -Answer is a "valid" sip response >> in the above context?. >> - If not what are the reason(s)? >> >> Regards >> Channa >> _______________________________________________ >> Sip-implementors mailing list >> Sip-implementors@lists.cs.columbia.edu >> https://lists.cs.columbia.edu/cucslists/listinfo/sip-implementors >> >> _______________________________________________ Sip-implementors mailing list Sip-implementors@lists.cs.columbia.edu https://lists.cs.columbia.edu/cucslists/listinfo/sip-implementors
