ISTM that this is a value judgement on the part of the PBX - exactly how
it thinks its transfer feature should work. In particular, does it
*want* to disclose to the caller that a transfer has occurred.
Thanks,
Paul
On 5/12/15 11:55 AM, ankur bansal wrote:
Hi Roger
Cisco PBX behavior seems correct here .Also after transfer is complete in
step 3 ,
Phone-A is out of picture after having BYE exchange with Phone-B and PBX.
So during step 4, PBX should use PAI of Phone-B.
Regards
Ankur Bansal
On Tue, May 12, 2015 at 4:55 PM, Roger Wiklund <roger.wikl...@gmail.com>
wrote:
Hi folks!
Scenario:
ITSP--------------PBX--------------PHONE-A--------------PHONE-B
1. Call from PSTN via ITSP to PHONE-A (via B2BUA PBX)
2. PHONE-A answers the call
3. PHONE-A makes a supervised transfer to PHONE-B (REFER within the PBX)
4. PBX sends UPDATE/Re-INVITE to ITSP with updated SDP containing
connection details to PHONE-B.
5. PHONE-B is now talking to the PSTN
In the above scenario using a Cisco Callmanager PBX, during step 4.
P-Asserted-Identity containing PHONE-B is included in the UPDATE/Re-INVITE
to the ITSP.
In the same scenario using a Mitel MX-One PBX, during step 4,
P-Asserted-Identity is included containing PHONE-A in the UPDATE/Re-Invite
to the ITSP.
I'm struggling with this as we are using a recording solution and with
Mitel MX-One the SRS cannot tell that the call has been transferred.
Section 3.2 describes they way Cisco does it (my interpretation at least)
https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5876#section-3.2
What's the correct way to implement this? The Cisco way or the Mitel way?
What's your take on this?
Thanks
/Roger
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