> -----Original Message-----
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Paul
> Kyzivat
>
> IMO if I give you sip:[EMAIL PROTECTED], with or without user=phone,
> then a call back to that URI MUST be via sip, and the 3263 rules say
> that it MUST be routed to domain sp.com before making any decision about
> how to reach something associated with the user part.

Interesting.  You said "if I give you... then a call *back* to that MUST be via 
sip".  In what way do you mean "if I give you..."?  Like in the From-URI of an 
outgoing request?  Or out-of-band (e.g., on a business card)?  Or both?


> If you are originating a call from a dial string, not a URI, then I
> guess you can formulate the R-URI any way you want. But if the calling
> party is supplying a URI (e.g. one it has saved from a prior received
> call) then it should be used as-is.

So how are we to tell which one it was, if you can formulate a dial string any 
which way? (I'm confused)


> If you want some server on the originating end to do something for the
> outbound call, then you should put a Route header in the request
> identifying the server.

And I wish that would work, but in many cases it won't.  For some of those 
cases I think it's because of bad equipment, and hopefully not a permanent 
problem.  But the From-URI you end up getting has a host-part that is of the 
previous or local domain, instead of the real originating domain, and thus the 
Req/To-URI you end up generating later will likewise be the local or 
next-domain.  If we could get wider vendor support for Tel-URIs (and Route 
headers), this problem will go away eventually... I hope.

-hadriel
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