At 05:04 PM 6/02/03 +0200, you wrote:
>Reserve Bank creates one billion new credit on 'pressure' on money 
>supply. It is not yet money (?)

How?  If it buys a bond from a private holder, with the new reserves 
backed by the new asset ... obviously, that's money.  If the Treasury 
writes a cheque, it is deposited by the recipient and the cheque 
clears, its actually money before the reserves are, strictly speaking, 
created (at least in Australia) since Treasury cheques are credited 
to your account immediately.

If it lends to a commercial bank, the reserves are assets at the 
bank, use to meet demands for cash or interbank settlements.  If 
they are used to meet demands for cash, then they become money, 
and if they are used to meet demands for interbank settlements, 
they are part of the assets backing credit-money.

On the functionalist definition, its money if its directly available 
to be used for exchange, to settle contracts for deferred payment, or 
as a store of value.  Of course, every approach is free to define 
"money" any way they like, but if they depart from the above 
definition, then they need a substitute definition for the thing that 
does the above stuff.

Under a 100% reserves system instead of a fractional reserves 
system, granting a loan would require a loan of reserves from 
the reserve bank.  If that was two transactions you could say 
that the reserves are a seperate asset backing the money, and 
if it was one transaction with the bank simply intermediating 
loans from the reserve bank, then all reserves would be money 
directly.  The difference would just be semantic, though, since 
there would be no change in liquidity in the system when money 
was withdrawn as cash or deposited on account.

However, it would have to be a tap issue system, or otherwise 
near money substitutes would be developed that would play 
the role of money for some transactions, and eventually you 
would end straight back at a fractional reserves system.

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