Bayesian methods are not my strong suit, but wouldn't "p innocence" be 60/121 = .50?
Michael T. Scoles, Ph.D.
Interim Chair, Dept. Psychology & Counseling University of Central Arkansas Conway, AR 72035 >>> [EMAIL PROTECTED] 12/2/2004 11:05:45 AM >>> So, posterior odds = (1/1) * (.9/.015) = or 60 to 1 in favor of innocence, or p innocence = 60/61 = .98. You are currently subscribed to tips as: archive@jab.org To unsubscribe send a blank email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] |
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