DAVEH: I just want to acknowledge your post, DavidM. I do appreciate
hearing your perspective on this. While your argument does make sense, how do you explain that judges would have been originally construed to be gods? Why not just leave it as judges, or perhaps use another word? (I think I asked virtually the same questions in a parallel post, so if you've already answered....no need to repeat yourself.) David Miller wrote: Dave Hansen wrote:... discuss why you think Jesus would have offered PS 82:6 as a defense against those who were accusing him of equating himself with God?John 10:31-39 (31) Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. (32) Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? (33) The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. (34) Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? (35) If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; (36) Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? (37) If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. (38) But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. (39) Therefore they sought again to take him: but he escaped out of their hand.Psalms 82:6-7 (6) I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High. (7) But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes. >From my perspective, Jesus was addressing primarily the syntax which was at the heart of the charge against him. The Scriptures refer to these individuals as "gods" (Elohim) and "children of the most High" (ben elyon). His point was not that these truly were gods, but rather that if the Scriptures would use such loaded language, not just calling them children of the Most High, but also "Elohim," then why should they object to his language of "son of God"? In other words, if they were going to accuse him of "blasphemy" based upon his phrase "son of God," then they would have to charge the Scriptures (which cannot be broken) with blasphemy because it uses even stronger language concerning those called to be representatives of God. Interestingly, this passage he is quoting speaks of judgment against these who were "gods." It speaks of their injustices, that while it was declared to them, "ye are gods, all of you children of the Most High," they would die like men because they had judged unjustly and accepted the persons of the wicked. Perhaps a secondary meaning that might be conveyed here is, "lighten up... God will judge me along with these in Psalm 82 who were called to a similar role if my actions do not line up with my speech." His primary meaning was the error of thinking that his syntax alone ("son of God") constituted blasphemy, but perhaps this secondary meaning might register with some. Peace be with you. David Miller. ---------- "Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org If you do not want to receive posts from this list, send an email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and you will be unsubscribed. If you have a friend who wants to join, tell him to send an e-mail to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and he will be subscribed. -- ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Dave Hansen [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://www.langlitz.com ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ If you wish to receive things I find interesting, I maintain six email lists... JOKESTER, OPINIONS, LDS, STUFF, MOTORCYCLE and CLIPS. |
- Re: [TruthTalk] Ye are gods Dave Hansen
- Re: [TruthTalk] Ye are gods David Miller
- Re: [TruthTalk] Ye are gods Dave Hansen