Biil  ------------    never tire of offering your opinion on these matters.   A very beneficial post.   Your lexical aides are interesting.   When we get together, I will bring my 1935  A.T, Robertson Greek grammar  ---     we can stand above the book, holding lite candles  and hum or something !!   Cool. 

JD




In a message dated 2/11/2005 7:44:57 PM Pacific Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:


                   


As it relates to the current discussion on the human nature of our Lord, Judy wrote   >   Jesus partook of human flesh without partaking of the effect of Adam's blood.  Heb 2:14 says "forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood he also himself likewise took part of the same....."
 

In this verse the "children" that is, the human children are said to be partakers of flesh and blood, and then speaking of Jesus, this verse says that He himself likewise took part of the same.  The word "took part" as applying to Christ is an entirely different word from "partakers" as applied to the children.  The word translated "took part" implies "taking part in something outside one's self"  The Greek word for parkakers is KOYNOHENO and means to "share fully" so that all of Adam's children share fully in Adam's flesh and blood.

 


When we read that JESUS "took part of the same" the word is METECHO which means "to take part but not all" The children take both flesh and blood of Adam but Christ took only part, that is, the flesh part, whereas the blood was the result of supernatural conception....

 


Hi, Judy. I realize that the above statement was made sometime ago, but since we are back on the subject of Jesus' humanity, and since I didn't bring it up at the time, I thought I would go ahead and ask you a couple questions now. I am wondering, do you have the source for the above quotation, where you say that metecho means "'to take part but not all'"? If so, I would be interested in knowing who or what it is. Did this come from a lexicon or is it from someone's commentary, like Dake perhaps, or is it something else? I know now that you do not like to add words to Scripture, like saying that "likeness" means "similar" and stuff like that, and so I thought I should just ask you where you got this, as none of my lexicons or other linguistic helps draw that same distinction. The following is a sampling of what I have on this word:


Friberg Lexicon:    metecho -- (have a) share in, participate in, partake of, w. the sharing always resulting fr. choosing to participate.
Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words:    metecho -- to partake of, share in (meta, with, echo, to have), akin to ... in Heb. 2.14, the KJV "took part of" is awkward; Christ "partook of" flesh and blood, R.V.
UBS Lexicon:    metecho -- share in (something) ...
Louw-Nida Lexicon:    metecho -- (a) share in ...
Liddell-Scott Lexicon:       metecho -- to partake of, enjoy a share of, share in, take part in; to partake of ; to be members of ; to partake of something in common w. another
BAGD Lexicon:     metecho -- to have a part or share in something; share, have a share, participate ... "He shared the same things, i.e., flesh and blood -- Hb. 2:14."
Reinecker &Rogers, Linguistic Key to the Greek New Testament: "The _expression_ 'flesh and blood' was the Hebrew designation for 'men' or 'human beings.' ... Meteschen aorist, active, indicative of metecho -- to have, to participate in, to share. The aorist tense points to the historic event of the Incarnation when the Son of God assumed this same human nature and thus himself became truly man and accordingly one with mankind" (670).

Do you see what I mean about your definition being distinctly different than these?

If you still have it, I would also like to know your source for the following statement, too: "The word translated 'took part' implies 'taking part in something outside one's self.'"
Is this from the same source as your other quote? Do you think, in accordance with Reinecker and Rogers, that this "taking part in something outside of one's self" could perhaps have something to do with the fact that the eternal/divine Logos became a human being? Surely that was something outside of his former self. As per Friberg, there he chose to partake of something that he was not prior to the Incarnation, namely, flesh and blood.  What does your source say?

Our discussion put me in mind of this verse: "For you know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though He was rich, yet for your sakes He became poor, that you through His poverty might become rich" (II Cor 8.9).

Anyway, I'll talk to you later,






Bill





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