David, you are so close to being an intellectual giant.   And I do mean that as sincerely stated as it can be.   There is so much about you that is above average.   So I walk into the room and there you are,  flat on your face as usual!!!   Why?   For precisely the same reasons Judy misses the mark as a theologian.   You have no hermeneutic that I can see.   As an old saint to a younger one,   I am asking you to take a few days, write down your rules for understanding the message, and then,  pas that along to me and the others.   I am sure it would be beneficial.   You write without an ounce of empathy.   Do you think that Heb 3:7 has no meaningful response for those who might disagree?   
 
Read Ps 7  -- especially the first half and compare it to the words of Ps 51:1fff   .    The prayer of David, "Stomp me into the ground if I have done evil to my friend" is not the actual prayer when he gets busted for doing that very thing !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!    With these two psalms, we have a picture of David growing up.     He moves from arrogance to humility.   He moves from ritual obedience to contrition and brokenness.    Did God cause the wording of some of the psalms?   I think so.   Is Psalm 7 the prayer of a man facing conviction for what he has done?   Hell no  !!!!!!!!!!   My poi nt.   Some of the psalms are sourced from man
 
 
JD
 
-----Original Message-----
From: David Miller <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
Sent: Thu, 13 Oct 2005 17:50:39 -0400
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] The TEXT will never be uniformily apprehended!!!

I'm glad you clarified this.  I thought maybe you had 1 John 5:8 in mind, but deep down, I think I knew better.  :-)
 
If you study the Scriptures a little closer, you will find that what you attribute to man is actually attributed to the Holy Ghost.  For example, consider Heb. 3:7, which quotes a psalm, something which you apparently attribute to man, but the author of Hebrews attributes to the Holy Ghost.
 
When I hear the statement that the Bible contains truth, there is an implication that some of it does not contain truth.  The problem with this is that it suggests the Bible is only trustworthy when one weeds through the parts that is true and separates it from what is false (kind of like the Thomas Jefferson approach to the Bible).  When I hear the statement that the Bible is truth, this has the implication that there is no falsehood in the Bible (in other words, the Bible in its entirety is trustworthy).
 
DM.
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Thursday, October 13, 2005 3:53 PM
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] The TEXT will never be uniformily apprehended!!!

Of course it did.   You Judy and  Linda simply don't read.    I said there were at least three sources of information in the biblical record.   God "thus said the Lord"  (verses abound);   Satan "thou shalt not surely die"  (you have no idea where this is found IN SCRITPURE ????) and man  ( many of the psalms.)
 
You, in return, offered nothing  -----  once again   -----  that speaks to the issue.   And you can't. 
 
JD
 
-----Original Message-----
From: Kevin Deegan <openairmission@yahoo.com>
To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
Sent: Thu, 13 Oct 2005 10:34:33 -0700 (PDT)
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] The TEXT will never be uniformily apprehended!!!

So now I have to provide proof whenever you come up with another of your baseless statements?
Your assertion contained no supporting data, why not?
 
Where did you learn the Bible "contains" the truth?
Thy word IS Truth JN 17:17
 
It is not a "message"
It does not contain truth
it is the very word of God

[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Kevin, kevin, kevin   ---------------   you have offered nothing for proof.   Who among us argues what is written in 17:17.   The biblcial message does present at least three sources of information.   If you need  a proof text for that ,   well,  you're just not reading the book. 
 
JD 
 
-----Original Message-----
From: Kevin Deegan <openairmission@yahoo.com>
To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
Sent: Thu, 13 Oct 2005 04:33:04 -0700 (PDT)
Subject: RE: [TruthTalk] The TEXT will never be uniformily apprehended!!!

Since the "scholars contains truth" crowd won't provide proof tetxts, here they are:
JN 17 :17 thy word is ((contains)) Truth
Hi Iz,
 
I presume that when you wrote the following (that about which Judy responds, "what Izzy says stands ..."), you were asking a rhetorical question -- the answer being, Of course not: "Can you separate God and His ... written Word?" I would like to challenge you to reconsider. If there is no difference, i.e., no separation, between God and his written word, then go ahead and pray to your Bible, for they are one in the same. You (not you per sonally, but your cohorts) criticized John for suggesting that the Bible contains the Word of God, demanding proof texts; yet you yourself write that it is "the Truth contained within" the Bible which is holy, and that Jesus' word speaks to you from those pages, if you have ears to hear. Would you mind explaining to me how this is different from that which set you (pl) off concerning John's statement?
 
Christians know better than to think it's okay to pray to their Bibles, yet with their own words, they sometimes exalt the Bible to a status due only to God. The two are not the same: that is what Lance is saying, and that is what John is saying, and, if I correctly apprehend your latest comment, that is what you are saying -- Judy's kudos noted. I think we all agree. Praise the Lord!
 
Bill 
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