and grammar
itself--does it not facilitate the expressiveness of both God and man? let's see
you right wing wackos, w/o absurditity, remove the human experience from
the grammar of the NT
On Sat, 26 Nov 2005 06:25:59 -0800 (PST) Kevin Deegan <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
writes:
||-----Original Message-----
From: David Miller <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
Sent: Sat, 26 Nov 2005 08:48:06 -0500
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] corrector/revisor
Notice how Robertson actually approaches this passage exactly the same way that Judy did for meaning. He goes back to Heb. 10:10, just like Judy did, to argue the proper meaning of 10:14 away from a progressive or iterative concept. His conclusion is similar to Judy's in that he says 10:14 is
CERTAINLY ONLY descriptive durative.
