At 10:53 -0500 2002-10-30, Alain LaBontÈÝ wrote:
A 21:46 2002-10-29 +0000, Michael Everson a écrit :
At 13:27 -0800 2002-10-29, Kenneth Whistler wrote:
Michael asked:

 My eyes have glazed over reading this discussion. What am I being
 asked to agree with?
Here's the executive summary for those without the time to
plow through the longer exchange:

Marco: It is o.k. (in a German-specific context) to display
       an umlaut as a macron (or a tilde, or a little e above),
       since that is what Germans do.

Kent:  It is *not* o.k. -- that constitutes changing a character.
[Michael]  Kent can't be right here.
[Alain] However I agree with Kent. Let's say a text identified as German quotes a French word with an U DIAERESIS *in the German text* (a word like "capharnaüm"). It would be a heresy to show a macron in a printed text in this context. In French *nobody* uses this practice that is frequent in German handwriting (but not in printing, unless I am wrong).
All that means is that the German font which did that would not be useful for French. The underlying coded character is the same, and the glyph is INFORMATIVE.
--
Michael Everson * * Everson Typography * * http://www.evertype.com

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